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Saturday, August 25, 2007

Nursing Board Exam Practice Test 4

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NOTE: No Answer key! Lets try to answer these together. Post your answer by commenting below.

Situation: Mang Lando is admitted due to severe chest pain. His wife accompanied him.

1. The nurse understands that the cause of pain in myocardial infarction is

a. myocardial hypoxia
b. decreased cardiac output vessels
c. constriction of blood
d. atherosclerosis

2. Which of the following test diagnoses myocardial infarction readiiy?

a. CBC
b. ECG
c. EEG
d. Ultrasound

3. The doctor ordered morphine sulfate for Mang Lando. The primary reason for giving morphine is

a. to increase strength of myocardial contraction
b. to decrease heart rate
c. to relieve pain
d. to manage arrhythmias

4. One of the nursing interventions in caring for Mang Lando during recovery will be

a. Limit visitors
b. Provide low-residue diet to rest the GIT
c. Let him lie on supine
d. Resume normal activities as soon as possible

5. Mang Lando's BP dropped from 110/70 to 60/40, HR: 60. He appears pale and weak. His wife cried when she saw him. The nurse suspects that he is having

a. hypovolemic shock
b. anaphylactic shock
c. traumatic shock
d. cardiogenic shock

6. While on admission, Mang Lando's wife told the nurse that they could go home in less than a week because her husband usually overcomes illness easily. The problem identified at this point is

a. anxiety
b. alteration in cardiac output
c. knowledge deficit
d. risk for injury

7. The nurse suspects Hepatitis. Which of the following conditions may be related to Jericho's complaints?

a. He loves to drink milk
b. He pricked his finger with a needle at home
c. He loves to eat fish ball at school
d. He shares towel with his younger brother

8. Hepatitis A is different from Hepatitis B because

a. Hepatitis B can be contracted by drinking fresh goat's milk
b. Hepatitis B can be transmitted by sexual contact with an infected person
c. Hepatitis B may manifest within 3-4 days of exposure to infected person
d. Hepatitis B causes liver inflammation

9. In order to promote optimum nutrition, the nurse would recommend which of the following diet to a client with hepatitis?

a. sundae and hamburger
b. rice, broiled fish, and banana
c. adobong kangkong, rice, daing
d. fried egg, longganisa, rice

10. Jericho is diagnosed with Hepatitis A. which of these measures is important to prevent the spread of organism?

a. Cook meats thoroughly
b. Boil water for drinking
c. Avoid kissing an infected person
d. Wash hands thoroughly after using the toilet

11. In hepatitis, all of the following laboratory values may be elevated except

a. Prothrombin time
b. Erythrocyte sedimentation
c. Leukocytes
d. SQOT rate

Situation: Lola Sabel, 80 years old has osteoporosis. She asks what causes this condition.

12. Nurse Nancy will demonstrate knowledge about osteoporosis if she tells Lola Sabel that it is usually due to

a. smoking
b. trauma during childhood
c. menopause
d. inactivity

13. In post-menopausal women, osteoporosis is due to decreased level of which hormone?

a. estrogen
b. calcitonin
c. thyroxine
d. progesterone

14. Unless contraindicated, what exercise is best for patients with osteoporosis?

a. jogging
b. swimming
c. bicycling
d. brisk walking

15. Lola Sabel lives with her daughter in a 2-storey house. Because of her age and illness which of the following should be the priority?

a. Safety
b. Nutrition
c. Communication
d. Mobility

16. Which of the following medications would be prescribed first for a client with rheumatoid arthritis?

a. Aspirin
b. Cytoxan
c. Ferrous sulfate
d. Prednisone

17.Which of the following blood components is decreased in anemia?

a. Erythrocytes
b. Granulocytes
c. Leukocytss
d. Platelets

18. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms that occur in the lung parenchyma allows pneumonia to develop?

a. Atelectasis
b. Bronchiectasis
c. Effusion
d. Inflammation

19. When auscultating the chest of a client with pneumonia, the nurse would expect to hear which of the following sounds over areas of consolidation?

a. Bronchial
b. BronchovesicuIar
c. Tubular
d. Vesicular

20. A diagnosis of pneumonia is typically achieved by which of the following diagnostic tests?

a. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis
b. Chest x-ray
c. Blood cultures
d. Sputum culture and sensitivity

21. A client with pneumonia develops dyspnea with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/minute and difficulty expelling his secretions. The nurse auscultates his lung fields and hears bronchial sounds in the left lower lobe. The nurse determines that the client requires which of the following treatments first?

a. Antibiotics
b. Bed rest
c. Oxygen
d. Nutritional intake

22. An adult client is being screened in the clinic today for tuberculosis. He reports having negative purified protein derivative (PPD) test results in the past. The nurse performs a PPD test on his right forearm today. When should he return to have the test read?

a. Right after performing the test
b. 24 hours after performing the test
c. 48 hours after performing the test
d. 1 week after performing the test

23. Which of the following diagnostic tests is definitive for tuberculosis?

a. Chest x-ray
b. Mantoux test
c. Sputum culture
d. Tuberculin test

24. A client with a positive skin test tuberculosis (TB) isn't showing signs of active disease. To help prevent the development of active tb, the client should be treated with isoniazid, 300 mg daily, for how long?

a. 10 to 14 days
b. 2 to 4 weeks
c. 3 to 6 months
d. 9 to12 months

25. A client with acute asthma showing inspiratory and expiratory wheezes and a decreased forced expiratory volume should be treated with which of the following classes of medication right away?

a. Beta-adrenergic blockers
b. Bronchodilators
c. inhaled steroids
d. Oral steroids

Situation: Montessa, 3 weeks post-partum asks the nurse about infant care.

26. When will be the earliest time solid food can be introduced to an infant?

a. 2 months
b. 4months
c. 9 months
d. 10 months

27. What is the best hypoallergenic food for babies?

a. potatoes
b. hard boiled eggs
c. mashed ripe fruit
d. rice cereal

28. New food may be introduced to infants

a. everyday
b. as soon as possible when the infants like it
c. every 4-5 days
d. every month

29. If Montessa's baby is now 5 months old and she is going to give fruit juice, how will she dilute it?

a. 1:2
b. 1:1
c. 2:1
d. 1:3

30. Primary tooth eruption usually begins at what age?

a. 8 months
b. 5 months
c. 6 months
d. 10 months

31. A mother bottle-feeds her infant, which of the following actions will necessitate intervention?

a. She cleans the infant's teeth with damp cloth
b. Feeding the infant with head elevated
c. Offering pacifier when the infant cries
d. Feeding bottle remains in the infant's mouth during sleep

32. Pregnant women in the community are advised to visit the RHU for prenatal check-up

a. once a month
b. once a week
c. as often as possible
d. once every trimester

33. Standard prenatal physical exam per visit include the following, except:

a. fundic height measurement
b. examination of the neck
c. ultrasound
d. examination of the breast

34. Frequency of uterine contraction refers to

a. the beginning of one contraction to the start of the next contraction
b. peak strength of contraction
c. time interval between the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next
d. the start of one contraction to the end of the same

35. In pregnant women, iron supplementation should begin

a. 1st trimester
b. 2nd trimester
c. 3rd trimester
d. as early as possible during pregnancy

36. Maria, a primigravid woman experiences bleeding accompanied with pain that increases in intensity. It may indicate

a. labor process
b. placenta previa
c. hydatidiform mole
d. uterine rupture

37. A woman on her 1st trimester of pregnancy complains of nausea and vomiting. She asks the nurse how to minimize her discomfort. The nurse is correct if she says

a. "You may eat dry crackers if you feel nauseated."
b. "A cup of coffee will ease the discomfort."
c. "Ok lang yan, ganyan talaga kung buntis"
d. "Eating fresh durian will help minimize nausea."

38. Hyperemesis gravidarum is due to excessive

a. Estrogen
b. HCG
c. Progestorene
d. HPL

39. When planning care for a 14-year old female who is pregnant, a nurse should recognize that the adolescent is at risk for:

a. gestational diabetes
b. incompetent cervix
c. iron deficiency anemia
d. fetal chromosomal abnormalities

40. The types of hepatitis most frequently transmitted by transfusion is:

a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D

41. Following partial gastrectomy, a client complained of epigastric discomfort and sweating 30 minutes after meals. The nurse states that this can be prevented by

a. drinking a glass of water with meals
b. performing progressive relaxation exercise after eating
c. avoiding sweets with meals
d. avoiding spicy and gas forming foods

Sally, a 45 year-old secretary, is brought to the emergency room with complaints of intermittent chest pain. She has history of angina due to coronary artery disease.

42. A routine nursing care measure for Sally includes administration of

a. Oxygen therapy
b. Stool softener
c. Tranquilizer
d. Narcotics

43. Sally is admitted to the ICU. Her medical regimen consists of digoxin and Lasix. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor closely?

a. calcium
b. potassium
c. magnesium
d. BUN

44. Her blood pressure is 168/98, heart rate 120 bpm, respirations 22 cpm. Urine output has decrease to 15 mi/hr for the past 2 hours. The nursing diagnoses most appropriate at this time are

a. Alteration in fluid volume (deficit) and impaired gas exchange
b. Alteration in urinary elimination pattern and impaired tissue integrity
c. Alteration in cardiac output (decreased) and alteration in tissue perfusion (renal, decreased)
d. Ineffective breathing pattern and urinary retention

45. A 78-year old patient is admitted with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure. What is a critical assessment finding to evaluate the extent of congestive heart failure?

a. recent weight gain
b. joint pain
c .blurred vision
d. Gl disturbances

46. To decrease workload to the heart in a patient with CHF, which of the following is appropriate?

a. eliminate fats and protein from the diet
b. limit fluid intake
c .order fleet's enema
d. order complete bed rest for 6-8 weeks

47. What indicates effectiveness of positive inotropic agents?

a. myocardial contractility is strengthened
b. myocardial relaxation is increased
c. smooth muscles are relaxed
d. skeletal muscles are relaxed

48. The patient's ABG values are: pH- 7.20, Pa02- 50, PaC02- 55, HC03- 27. The nurse would anticipate which acid-base abnormality?

a. respiratory alkalosis
b. respiratory acidosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis

49. An important consideration when suctioning a patient with COPD is

a. hyperoxygenation before and after suctioning
b. suction for at least 30 seconds
c. use clean technique during suctioning
d. position in supine while suctioning

50. The physician orders anti -anxiety medication to a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder. Basing on pharmacology knowledge, which of the following drugs would be administered?

a. Ativan
b. Haidol
c. Dilantin
d. Thorazine

51. A nurse is conducting a health-awareness class to a group of female young adults. In performing breast self-examination, the nurse would teach them to

a. Visualize the breasts in a mirror
b. Perform palpation of breasts with the palm of her hand
c. Perform the examination a few days prior to menses
d. Perform all steps of the exam in an upright, sitting position

52. Joan, mother of three children elects to use a diaphragm for birth control. To maximize effectiveness of this method the nurse would instruct her to

a. Moisten with petroleum jelly before insertion.
b. Leave in place for 6 hours after coitus
c. Return to clinic every 6 months for refitting
d. Check for correct placement by squatting and feeling for string

53. Lino, 10 years old, is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of spontaneous hemorrhage of the right knee secondary to hemophilia. With continuous bleeding apparent, the nurse should take which of the following actions?

a. Ordering platelets for replacement
b. Passive range of motion exercise to prevent contractures
c. Application of warm compress for pain relief
d. immobilization and elevation of the right knee

54. Daisy, 9 years old has been hospitalized for treatment of nephrotic syndrome. Her weight is 30 kg., and she has generalized edema. What data will support the nursing diagnosis of fluid volume excess related to compromised regulatory function?

a. Extreme restlessness
b.Hematocrit level of 37%
c. Intake of 2000 ml in 24 hrs
d. Urine output of 100 ml in 8 hrs

55. Which of the following is appropriate to meet the nutritional needs during the edema phase of nephrotic syndrome?
a. Eliminate salt from the diet
b. Low protein, low potassium diet
c. No added salt diet
d. Fluids after and between meals only

Situation: Baby Ten, 10 months old, is admitted for treatment of dehydration due to several days of severe diarrhea. His BP is within normal limits, mouth dry, skin turgor decreased, he is thirsty and lethargic.

56. What data collected by the nurse would also indicate that Ten is dehydrated?

a. bluish discoloration of lips
b. posterior fontanelle is closed
c. grayish color of skin
d. pinpoint rash over trunk of body

57. The fact that Teri's blood pressure is within normal limits is best explained by which of the following statements?

a. His fluid loss is minimal and therefore normal pressure has been maintained
b. Fluid has shifted from the intracellular reserves to the interstitial space to maintain pressure on the vessels
c. The rapid metabolic rate of the young child maintains blood pressure
d. The elasticity of blood vessels in the young child help to maintain a stable pressure even when fluid volume is decreased.

58. The nurse assigned to provide care to Ten reviews the medical orders. Which of the following orders on the chart should be questioned?

a. NPO
b. Vital signs
c. IV of D5W q 4hrs
d. Enteric precautions

59. The physician orders the addition of potassium chloride to his intravenous infusion. As part of his assessment prior to implementation of this order, the nurse would check whether

a. the child has urinated
b. the child has had a bowel movement in the last 24 hours.
c. an electrocardiogram has been done
d. blood chloride levels has been determined

60. Teri's mother is somewhat concerned about her development. Failure to attain this developmental milestone would indicate a developmental delay:

a. Says three words other than "mama" and "dada"
b. Sits without support
c. Builds a tower of two cubes
d. Walks well

Situation: Mark, 14 years old has acute lymphocytic leukemia.

61. Mark's father asks why a combination of drugs is being used to treat the leukemia. The nurse must know that the rationale for using several drugs is that:

a. Many drugs are new and need to be tested with other drugs
b. They act on cells in different stages of mitosis and produce a more rapid reduction in the number of leukemic cells
c. Side effects of some drugs will be decreased by the action of other drugs.
d. The period of treatment for Mark will be much shorter than if drugs are given one at a time

62. Mark is placed on reverse isolation and his mother asks why this is necessary. An appropriate response by the nurse would be:

a. Myelosuppression and immunosuppression result from both the disease and its treatment b. Red blood cells are increased as a result of the disease
c. The platelet reduction found in leukemia fosters infection
d. Increased bone marrow activity predisposes the child to infection

63. In preparing Mark for a lumbar puncture, which of the following approaches is most appropriate?

a. Tell him just before the procedure is to be done.
b. Use dolts and puppets to show what will be done.
c. Let Mark play with the equipment that will be used during the procedure.
d. Explain steps in the procedure using correct terminology.

64. When Mark is well enough to return to school, his parents should be taught to keep him home when children in school are known to have:

a. Colds
b. Chickenpox
c. Otitis media
d. Gastroenteritis

Situation: Marina, 45 year-old woman admitted to the hospital is newly diagnosed with uicerative colitis.

65. The symptom most characteristic of ulcerative colitis is:

a. weight gain
b. constipation
c. vomiting
d. abdominal pain

66. Uicerative colitis is:

a. inflammation of the colon which begins initially in the rectum and sigmoid colon
b. superficial erosion of the gastric lining with little inflammation
c. decreased or absent peristalsis in the colon
d. hemiation of the mucosa of the colon

67. The physician orders for her to be NPO for several days. The importance of NPO status is to

a. prevent vomiting and aspiration of food
b. allow adequate time for the colon to rest and heal
c. decrease abdominal distention
d. allow diagnostic testing to be completed

68. Upon discharge, she is recommended a low residue diet. The purpose of this diet is to:

a. increase peristalsis
b. provide bulk
c. increase amount of fecal material
d. provide nonirritating foods

Situation: Mang Dionisio came to the clinic for his routine check-up. His blood pressure on the first visit is 180/90 and on the second visit is 170/90. He is diagnosed with primary hypertension.

69. He also complains of dizziness, palpitations, and blurred vision on occasion. He might also exhibit:

a. anorexia
b. fatigue
c. insomnia
d. heartburn

70. A calcium blocking agent, Procardia, is prescribed to control his hypertension. The nurse recognizes that this medication decreases blood pressure by:

a. reducing the plasma volume
b. decreasing sympathetic stimulation
c. increasing kidney perfusion
d. dilating the peripheral arterioles

Situation: Baby Boy Lopez, 7 months old, is admitted to the hospital. His mother says that he is often lack of energy even during feeding. He frequently gets infections.

71. Baby Boy has good head control and can roll over, but he cannot sit without support nor transfer objects from one hand to the other. Basing on these facts, what is his developmental age?

a. 2-3 months
b. 3-4 months
c. 4-6 months
d. 6-8 months

72. From the history, the nurse suspects a cyanotic type of defect. Which of the following is a cyanotic heart defect?

a. Ventricular septal defect
b. Aortic stenosis
c. Tetralogy of Faliot
d. Pulmonjc stenosis

Situation: Rico, 12-year-old, is hospitalized for evaluation of his epilepsy

73. Rico has a seizure while at the emergency room. The nurse should

a. Ease Rico to the floor
b. Put something between his teeth
c. Have everyone else leave the room
d. Restrain Rico to prevent injuries

74. Tom is placed on Dilantin to control his seizures. One of the most important side effects to watch for is

a. Hyperactivity
b. Hypertension
c. Swelling of the ankles
d. Hypertrophy of the gums

Situation: Juan de la Cruz, 50 years old, is hospitalized with mild ascites, bruising and jaundice. He has a 20-year history of alcohol abuse, and is diagnosed with cirrhosis.

75. Juan has esophageal varices. Which of the following may cause the varices to

a. Lifting heavy objects
b. Walking
c. Ingestion of antacids
d. Ingestion of sedatives

76. Due to his history of alcohol abuse, Juan will most likely have deficiency of the following nutrients:

a. Thiamine and folic acid
b. Folic acid and vitamin A
c. Vitamin A and pyridoxine
d. Thiamine and pyridoxine

77. Juan begins to exhibit signs of hepatic coma. Which of the following is an early sign of impending hepatic coma?

a. Hiccups
b. Anorexia
c. Confusion
d. Fetur hepaticus

78. The physician orders neomycin 0.5 g every 6 hours to prevent hepatic coma. Neomycin decreases serum ammonia levels by:

a. Decreasing nitrogen-forming bacteria in the intestines.
b. Acidifying colon contents by causing ammonia retention in the colon.
c. Decreasing the uptake of Vitamin D, thereby drawing more water into the colon.
d. Irritating the bowel and promoting evacuation of stool.

Situation: Mang Paco, 40 years old, is brought to the hospital unconscious. He has history of type 1 diabetes. A diagnosis of ketoacidosis is made.

79. His blood sugar level is 520 mg/dL. Which of the following should the nurse expect to administer?

a. D50W by IV push
b. NPH insulin subcutaneously
c. Regular insulin by IV infusion
d. Sweetened orange juice by mouth

80. Life-threatening complications may occur initially, so the nurse will monitor Mang Paco closely for serum:

a. Chloride level of 99 mEq/L
b. Sodium level of 136 mEq/L
c. Potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L
d. Potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L

81. He begins to receive a daily injection of NPH insulin at 6:30 am. The nurse most likely to expect a hypoglycemic reaction to occur that same day at:

a. 8:30 am-10:30 am
b. 2:30 pm-4:30pm
c. 7:30 pm - 9:30 pm
d.10:30 pm-11:30 pm

82. When discussing the relationship between exercise and insulin requirement, Mang Pacos should be instructed that

a. When exercise is increased, insulin needs are increased.
b. When exercise is increased, insulin needs are decreased.
c. There is no change in insulin needs when exercise is increased.
d. When exercise is decreased, insulin needs are decreased.

Situation: Kiko, age 21, was admitted with fractures sustained in an automobile accident. His fractures include compound fracture of right femur, closed fracture of pelvis and left humerus. His vital signs are stable for the past 2 days.

83. During assessment, he is confused, respirations rapid, with diffuse crackles in both lung fields, and petechiae across his chest. Based on the findings, which complication would the nurse suspect?

a. Aspiration pneumonia
b. Fat embolism
c. Emotional reaction to stress
d. Systemic reaction to analgesics

84. A priority nursing measure to reduce complications for Kiko is:

a. Apply restraints
b. Sedate
c. Immobilization
d. Rest

85. Which nursing assessments are most important to the safety of the patient in skeletal traction?

a. Neurovascular status, appetite
b. Appetite and family relationships
c. Skin integrity and ability to sleep
d. Body alignment and neurovascular status

Situation: Shirley, age 24, seeks medical care because she suspects she is pregnant. Her last menstrual period began Oct 15.

86. Shirley asks the nurse, " When will my baby be due? ". The correct response basing on Naegel's rule is

a. July 15
b. July 22
c. August 7
d. July 29

87. During initial examination, a purplish discoloration of the cervix and vaginal wall is noted. This is referred to as:

a. Goodell's sign
b. Chadwick's sign
c. Hegar's sign
d. Couveloire syndrome

88. The nurse knows that which of the following statements about the uterus is accurate?

a. The myometrium is composed of three layers of voluntary muscles
b. The uterus is supported by ligaments and by the musculature of the pelvic floor
c. The body of the uterus returns to its pre-pregnant size within 4 weeks after delivery
d. The uterus is an organ that provides nourishment for the growing fetus during pregnancy

89.To screen for the presence of neural tube defects in the fetus, which of the following tests will be performed?

a. Serum alpha-fetoprotein
b. Biophysical profile
c. Amniocentesis
d. TORCH titers

90. A nurse would expect a patient to describe the symptoms of arterial insufficiency in the lower extremities in which of the following ways?

a. " My legs feel weak when I get up to walk."
b." My legs hurt when I walk, but they feel better when I sit down."
c. "My feet and ankles become swollen after walking."
d." My feet burn if I walk on a hard surface."

91. A patient is taking theophylline for the management of asthma. A nurse would advise the patient to report which of the following symptoms?

a. weight gain
b. excessive thirst
c. red-orange urine
d. heart palpitations

92. An infant is to receive 28 mg of phenobarbirtal (Luminal) orally per day divided into two equal doses for seizure control. The medication is dispensed as 20 mg per 5 ml. how many ml should the nurse administer for each dose?

a. 2.8
b. 3.5
c. 5.6
d. 7.0

93. A nurse would expect a patient who has cataract to report which of the following symptoms?

a. decreased color perception
b. loss of peripheral vision
c. halos around lights
d. headaches

94. A patient who has undergone a thyroidectomy would be predisposed to the development of

a. hypocalcemia
b. hyponatremia
c. hyperkalemia
d. hypermagnesemia

95.Which of the following nursing diagnoses is a priority for a patient with gout?

a. Pain
b. Fatigue
c. Risk of infection
d. Risk of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction

96. When caring for a patient experiencing status asthmaticus, which of the following signs should alert the nurse to impending respiratory failure?

a. audible wheezing
b. absence of wheezing
c. crackles during expiration
d. rhonchi during inspiration

97. Which of the following behaviors by a 36-month old child supports a nursing
diagnosis of growth and development, altered?

a. walks holding or to furniture
b. sits down from a standing position
c. can push and pulI toys
d. throws a ball overhead

98. Which of the following behaviors would a patient with borderline personality disorder most likely demonstrate when feeling abandoned by a significant other?

a. apathetic
b. disoriented
c. self-destructive
d. psychotic

99. Following automobile accident, a young woman is admitted to the hospital with head injuries. To determine if the patient's condition is deteriorating, the nurse should assess for

a. escalation of discomfort
b. quality of respirations
c. narrowing of pulse pressure
d. rapidity of heart rate

100. A patient who has had a left, above the knee amputation asks a nurse why there is a sensation of pain in the left foot. The nurse should know that this sensation is called

a. intractable pain
b. radiating pain
c. phantom pain
d. referred pain


- NLE Pre-board December 2007 Practice Test 1

- NLE Pre-board December 2007 Practice Test 2

- NLE Pre-board December 2007 Practice Test 3

- NLE Pre-board December 2007 Practice Test 4

- Nursing Quiz Topic: Glaucoma

- Nursing Quiz Topic: Asthma

- Nursing Quiz Topic: Leptospirosis

- Nursing Quiz Topic: Osteoporosis

- Nursing Quiz Topic: COPD

- Nursing Quiz Topic: Atrial Fibrillation

- Nursing Quiz Topic: Anticoagulants

- Nursing Practice Test 1

- Nursing Practice Test 2

- Nursing Practice Test 3

- Nursing Practice Test 5

- Nursing Practice Test 6

- Nursing Practice Test 7

- Nursing Practice Test 8

- Nursing Practice I

- Nursing Practice I (CONT)

- Nursing Practice II

- Nursing Practice III

- Nursing Practice IV

- Nursing Practice V

- Nursing Practice Test 3a

- Nursing Practice Test 3b

- Nursing Practice Test 3c

- Nursing Practice Test 3d

Article copyright - #1 source of information to update nurses all over the world. All rights reserved. No part of an article may be reproduced without the prior permission.


Anonymous said...

My answer to question #1 is C

Anonymous said...

2. is c

Anonymous said...

these are my answers. pls giv me my score. tnx

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. c
5. d
6. c
7. c
8. c ?
9. b
10. c
11. b
12. c
13. c
14. c
15. a
16. a
17. a
18. b
19. a
20. d
21. c
22. c
23. c
24. c
25. b
26. b
27. c
28. c
29. ?
30. c
31. d
32. a
33. b
34. a
35. c?
36. c?
37. a
38. b
39. b?
40. b
41. b
42. a
43. b
44. c
45. a
46. b
47. a
48. b
49. a
50. a
51. a
52. b
53. d
54. d
55. b
56. c?
57. b?
58. c
59. a
60. a
61. b
62. a
63. b
64. b
65. d
66. a
67. b
68. d
69. b
70. d
71. b
72. d
73. a
74. d
75. d
76. a
77. c
78. a
79. c?
80. d
81. b
82. a
83. b
84. c
85. d
86. b
87. b
88. d
89. a
90. a
91. d
92. b
93. b
94. a
95. a
96. b
97. a
98. a?
99. b
100. c

Myk said...


Sorry, but i dont have the answer key for this test, please try to brainstorm with your peers, the reason i placed this questionnaires is that you will be familiar with the common questions at the same time improve your comprehension skills. Understand the question is half the battle. Good luck with your NLE Exam. You might want to checkout

Anonymous said...


thanks a lot for the questions. it's really a big help for us who will be taking the NLE. i just hope that more BSN's will know about this very helpful website. more power to u guys.

Anonymous said...

if i will answer the above question in test 4,i can get my score?you will give the right answer?

Anonymous said...

c. constriction of blood

tip: read the choices carefully, it can be tricky sometimes.

-There is no situation wherein blood is constricted, maybe you meant "blood vessels", but its not in the choice.

Anonymous said...

hi! can u pls check how many correct i've got from this questionaire?? tnx..
1. c
2. b
3. d
4. a
5. d
6. c
7. c
8. d
9. b
10. a
11. a
12. d
13. b
14. d
15. a
16. b
17. d
18. b
19. a
20. b
21. c
22. b
23. c
24. a
25. b
26. a
27. d
28. a
29. b
30. c
31. c
32. a
33. d
34. c
35. a
36. d
37. a
38. b
39. c
40. b
41. d
42. a
43. d
44. b
45. a
46. a
47. c
48. b
49. c
50. c
51. b
52. d
53. d
54. a
55. b
56. b
57. d
58. c
59. a
60. a
61. b
62. d
63. d
64. a
65. c
66. b
67. d
68. d
69. a
70. b
71. c
72. c
73. b
74. d
75. a
76. d
77. c
78. b
79. d
80. d
81. a
82. b
83. c
84. b
85. d
86. b
87. b
88. b
89. a
90. c
91. d
92. b
93. d
94. c
95. a
96. b
97. a
98. c
99. d

Anonymous said...

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. c
5. d
6. c
7. c
8. c ?
9. b
10. c
11. b
12. c
13. c
14. c
15. a
16. a
17. a
18. b
19. a
20. d
21. c
22. c
23. c
24. c
25. b
26. b
27. c
28. c
29. ?
30. c
31. d
32. a
33. b
34. a
35. c?
36. c?
37. a
38. b
39. b?
40. b
41. b
42. a
43. b
44. c
45. a
46. b
47. a
48. b
49. a
50. a
51. a
52. b
53. d
54. d
55. b
56. c?
57. b?
58. c
59. a
60. a
61. b
62. a
63. b
64. b
65. d
66. a
67. b
68. d
69. b
70. d
71. b
72. d
73. a
74. d
75. d
76. a
77. c
78. a
79. c?
80. d
81. b
82. a
83. b
84. c
85. d
86. b
87. b
88. d
89. a
90. a
91. d
92. b
93. b
94. a
95. a
96. b
97. a
98. a?
99. b
100. c

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