Source: Saunders Q&A Review 3rd edition
1. A client with myasthenia gravis reports the occurrence of difficulty chewing. The physician prescribes pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon) to increase muscle strength for this activity. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication at what time, in relation to meals?
a. after dinner daily when most fatigued
b. before breakfast daily
c. as soon as arising in the morning
d. thirty minutes before each meal
Pyridostigmine is a cholinergic medication used to increase muscle strength for the client with myasthenia gravis. For the client who has difficulty chewing, the medication should be administered 30 minutes before meals to enhance the client’s ability to eat.
2. A client is advised to take senna (Senokot) for the treatment of constipation asks the nurse how this medication works. The nurse responds knowing that it:
a. accumulates water in the stool and increases peristalsis
b. stimulates the vagus nerve
c. coats the bowel wall
d. adds fiber and bulk to the stool
Senna works by changing the transport of water and electrolytes in the large intestine, which causes the accumulation of water in the mass of stool and increased peristalsis.
3. A client is receiving heparin sodium by continuous intravenous infusion. The nurse monitors the client for which adverse effect of this therapy?
a. decreased blood pressure
b. increased pulse rate
Heparin sodium is an anticoagulant. The client who receives heparin sodium is at risk for bleeding. The nurse monitors for signs of bleeding, which includes bleeding from the gums, ecchymoses on the skin, cloudy or pink-tinged urine, tarry stools, and body fluids that test positive for occult blood.
4. A client is being treated for acute congestive heart failure (CHF) and the client’s vital signs are as follows: BP 85/50 mm Hg; pulse, 96 bpm; respirations, 26 cpm. The physician prescribes digoxin (Lanoxin). To evaluate a therapeutic effectiveness of this medication, the nurse would expect which of the following changes in the client’s vital signs?
a. BP 85/50 mm Hg, pulse 60 bpm, respirations 26 cpm
b. BP 98/60 mm Hg, pulse 80 bpm, respirations 24 cpm
c. BP 130/70 mm Hg, pulse 104 bpm, respirations 20 cpm
d. BP 110/40 mm Hg, 110 bpm, respirations 20 cpm
The main function of digoxin is inotropic. It produces increased myocardial contractility that is associated with an increased cardiac output. This causes a rise in the BP in a client with CHF. Digoxin also has a negative chronotropic effect (decreases heart rate) and will therefore cause a slowing of the heart rate. As cardiac output improves, there should be an improvement in respirations as well.
5. Diazepam (Valium) is prescribed for a client with anxiety. The nurse instructs the client to expect which side effect?
Valium, a benzodiazepine, can cause motor incoordination and ataxia and safety precautions should be instituted for clients taking this medication.
6. A client receives oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce labor. During the administration of the oxytocin, it is most important for the nurse to monitor:
a. urinary output
b. fetal heart rate
c. central venous pressure
d. maternal blood glucose
Pitocin produces uterine contractions. Uterine contractions can cause fetal anoxia. The nurse monitors the fetal heart rate and notifies the physician of any significant changes.
7. A clinic nurse is performing assessment on a client who is being seen in the clinic for the first time. When asking about the client’s medication history, the client tells the nurse that he takes nateglinide (Starlix). The nurse then questions the client about the presence of which disorder that is treated with this medication?
c. type 2 diabetes mellitus
d. renal failure
Nateglinide (Starlix) is an antidiabetic medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus in clients whose disease cannot be adequately controlled with diet and exercise. It stimulates the release of insulin from beta cells of the pancreas by depolarizing beta cells, leading to an opening of calcium channels. Resulting calcium influx induces insulin secretion.
8. A client who is taking rifampin (Rifadin) as part of the medication regimen for the treatment of tuberculosis calls the clinic nurse and reports that her urine is a red-orange color. The nurse tells the client to:
a. come to the clinic to provide a urine sample
b. stop the medication until further instructions are given by the physician
c. take the medication dose with an antacid to prevent this adverse effect
d. expect a red-orange color in urine, feces, sweat, sputum, and tears as a harmless side effect
Rifampin (Rifadin) is an antitubercular medication used in conjunction with at least one other antitubercular agent for initial treatment or retreatment of tuberculosis. Urine, feces, sputum, sweat, and tears may become red-orange in color. The client should also be told that soft contact lenses may become permanently stained as a result of this harmless side effect. There is no useful reason for the client to provide a urine sample. The client is not told to stop a medication. Antacids are not usually taken with a medication because of interactive effects.
9. A nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy that has been diagnosed with a respiratory infection. The client is receiving vancomycin hydrochloride (Vancocin) 500 mg intravenously every 12 hours. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
a. decreased hearing acuity
Vancomycin hydrochloride (Vancocin) is an antibiotic. Adverse and toxic effects include nephrotoxicity characterized by a change in the amount or frequency of urination, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and increased thirst; ototoxicity characterized by hearing loss due to damage to the auditory branch of the eight cranial nerve; and red-neck syndrome from too rapid injection of the medication characterized by chills, fever, fast heartbeat,
nausea, vomiting, itching, rash and redness on the face, neck, arms, and back. When this medication is administered to a client, nursing responsibilities include monitoring renal function laboratory results, intake and output, and hearing acuity.
10. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of metastatic breast carcinoma who is receiving tamoxifen citrate (Nolvadex) 10 mg orally twice daily. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a side effect related to the medication?
c. nose bleeds
d. vaginal bleeding
Tamoxifen citrate is an antineoplastic medication that competes with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentration of receptors such as the breasts, uterus, and vagina. Frequent side effects include hot flashes, nausea, vomiting, vaginal bleeding or discharge, pruritus, and skin rash. Adverse or toxic effects include retinopathy, corneal opacity, and decreased visual acuity.
11. A client has just been given a prescription for diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil). The nurse teaches the client which of the following about the use of this medication?
a. drooling may occur while taking this medication
b. irritability may occur while taking this medication
c. this medication contains a habit-forming ingredient
d. take the medication with a laxative of choice
Diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) is an antidiarrheal. The client should not exceed the recommended dose of this medication because it may be habit-forming. Since this medication is an antidiarrheal, it should not be taken with a laxative. Side effects of the medication include dry mouth and drowsiness.
12. A nurse is gathering data from client about the client’s medication history and notes that the client is taking tolterodine tartrate (Detrol LA). The nurse determines that the client is taking the medication to treat which disorder?
b. renal insufficiency
c. pyloric stenosis
d. urinary frequency and urgency
Tolterodine tartrate is an antispasmodic used to treat overactive bladder and symptoms of urinary frequency, urgency, or urge incontinence. It is contraindicated in urinary retention and uncontrolled narrow-angle glaucoma. It is used with caution in renal function impairment, bladder outflow obstruction, and gastrointestinal obstructive disease such as pyloric stenosis.
13. A client has an order to receive psyllium (Metamucil) daily. The nurse administers this medication with:
a. a multivitamin and mineral supplement
b. a dose of an antacid
d. eight ounces of liquid
Metamucil is a bulk-forming laxative. It should be taken with a full glass of water or juice, and followed by another glass of liquid. This will help prevent impaction of the medication in the stomach or small intestine. The other options are incorrect.
14. A nurse is teaching a client taking cyclosporine (Sandimmune) after renal transplant about medication information. The nurse tells the client to be especially alert for:
a. signs of infection
c. weight loss
d. hair loss
Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant medication used to prevent transplant rejection. The client should be especially alert for signs and symptoms of infection while taking this medication, and report them to the physician if experienced. The client is also taught about other side effects of the medication, including hypertension, increased facial hair, tremors, gingival hyperplasia, and gastrointestinal complaints.
15. A nurse reinforces dietary instruction for the client receiving spironolactone (Aldactone). Which food would the nurse instruct the client to avoid while taking this medication?
Aldactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and the client needs to avoid foods high in potassium, such as whole grain cereals, legumes, meat, bananas, apricots, orange juice, potatoes, and raisins. Option c provides the highest source of potassium and should be avoided.
16. Oral lactulose (Chronulac) is prescribed for the client with a hepatic disorder and the nurse provides instructions to the client regarding this medication. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instructions?
a. "I need to take the medication with water’"
b. "I need to increase fluid intake while taking the medication"
c. "I need to increase fiber in the diet"
d. "I need to notify the physician of nausea occurs"
Lactulose retains ammonia in the colon, promotes increased peristalsis and bowel evacuation, expelling ammonia from the colon. It should be taken with water or juice to aid in softening the stool. An increased fluid intake and a high-fiber diet will promote defecation. If nausea occurs, the client should be instructed to drink cola, eat unsalted crackers, or dry toast. It is not necessary to notify the physician.
17. A home care nurse provides instructions to a client taking digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. Which statement by the client indcates a need for further instructions?
a. "I will take my prescribed antacid if I become nauseated"
b. "It is important to have my blood drawn when prescribed"
c. "I will check my pulse before I take my medication"
d. "I will carry a medication identification card with me"
Digoxin is an antidysrhythmic. The most common early manifestations of toxicity are gastrointestinal (GI) disturbances such as anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. If these manifestations occur, the physician needs to be notified. Digoxin blood levels need to be obtained as prescribed to monitor for therapeutic plasma levels (0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL). The client is instructed to take the pulse, hold the medication if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute, and notify the physician. The client is instructed to wear or carry an ID bracelet or card.
18. A client with anxiety disorder is taking buspirone (BuSpar) and tells the nurse that it is difficult to swallow the tablets. The nurse tells the client to:
a. dissolve the tablet in a cup of coffee
b. crush the tablet before taking it
c. call the physician for a change in medication
d. mix the tablet uncrushed in custard
Buspirone (BuSpar) may be administered without regard to meals and the tablets may be crushed. It is premature to advise the client to call the physician for a change in medication without first trying alternative interventions. Mixing the tablet uncrushed in custard will not ensure ease in
swallowing. Dissolving the tablet in a cup of coffee is not the best instruction to provide to the client because this measure may not ensure that the client will receive the entire dose.
19. A nurse is caring for a child with CHF provides instructions to the parents regarding the administration of digoxin (Lanoxin). Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further instructions?
a. "If my child vomits after I give the medication, I will not repeat the dose"
b. "I will check my child’s pulse before giving the medication"
c. "I will check the dose of the medication with my husband before I give the medication"
d. "I will mix the medication with food"
The medication should not be mixed with food or formula because this method would not ensure that the child receives the entire dose of medication. Options a, b, and c are correct. Additionally, if a dose is missed and is not identified until 4 or more hours later, that dose is not administered. If more than one consecutive dose is missed, the physician needs to be notified.
20. A nurse provides instructions to a client who will begin an oral contraceptives. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further instructions?
a. "I will take one pill daily at the same time every day"
b. "I will not need to use an additional birth control method once I start these pills"
c. "If I miss a pill I need to take it as soon as I remember"
d. "If I miss two pills I will take them both as soon as I remember and I will take two pills the next day also"
The client needs to be instructed to use a second birth control method during the first pill cycle. Options a, b, and c are correct. Additionally, the client needs to be instructed that if she misses three pills, she will need to discontinue use for that cycle and use another birth control method.
21. A nurse provides instructions to a client taking clorazepate (Tranxene) for management of an anxiety disorder. The nurse tells the client that:
a. drowsiness is a side effect that usually disappears with continued therapy
b. if dizziness occurs, call the physician
c. smoking increases the effectiveness of the medication
d. if gastrointestinal disturbances occur, discontinue the medication
Drowsiness occurs as a side effect and usually disappears with continued therapy. The client should be instructed that if dizziness occurs to change positions slowly from lying to sitting, before standing. Smoking reduces medication effectiveness. Gastrointestinal disturbances can occur as an occasional side effect and the medication can be given with food if this occurs.
22. A client with Parkinson’s disease has begun therapy with levodopa (L-dopa). The nurse determines that the client understands the action of the medication if the client verbalizes that results may not be apparent for:
a. 24 hours
b. Two to three days
c. One week
d. Two to three weeks
Signs and symptoms of Parkinson’s disease usually begin to resolve within 2 to 3 weeks of starting therapy, although in some clients marked improvement may not be seen for up to 6 months. Clients need to understand this concept to aid in compliance with medication therapy.
23. A nurse in a physician’s office is reviewing the results of a client’s phenytoin (Dilantin) level drawn that morning. The nurse determines that the client has a therapeutic drug level if the client’s result was:
a. 3 mcg/ml
b. 8 mcg/ml
c. 15 mcg/ml
The therapeutic range for serum phenytoin levels is 10 to 20 mcg/mL in clients with normal serum albumin levels and renal function. A level below this range indicates that the client is not receiving sufficient medication, and is at risk for seizure activity. In this case, the medication dose should be adjusted upward. A level above this range indicates that the client is entering the toxic range and is at risk for toxic side effects of the medication. In this case, the dose should be adjusted downward.
24. A nurse is caring for a client with a genitourinary tract infection receiving amoxicillin (Augmentin) 500 mg every 8 hours. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect related to the medication?
d. watery diarrhea
Amoxicillin is a penicillin. Adverse effects include superinfection, such as potentially fatal antibiotic-associated colitis, that results from altered bacterial balance. Symptoms include abdominal cramps, severe watery diarrhea, and fever. Frequent side effects of the medication include gastrointestinal disturbances (mild diarrhea, nausea, vomiting), headache, and oral or vaginal candidiasis.
25. A nurse is caring for a client with glaucoma who receives a daily dose of acetazolamide (Diamox). Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
b. difficulty swallowing
c. dark-colored urine and stools
Acetazolamide (Diamox) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. Nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity can occur and is manifested by dark-colored urine and stools, pain in the lower back, jaundice, dysuria, crystalluria, and renal colic and calculi. Bone marrow depression may also occur.
26. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of meningitis who is receiving amphotericin B (Fungizone) intravenously. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect related to the medication?
b. decreased urinary output
c. muscle weakness
Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication. Adverse effects include nephrotoxicity evidenced by a decrease in urinary output and the nurse needs to monitor fluid balance and renal function tests for potential signs of this adverse effect. Cardiovascular toxicity, evidenced by hypotension and ventricular fibrillation, can occur but is rare. Anaphylactic reactions are also rare. Vision and hearing alterations, seizures, hepatic failure and coagulation defects may also occur.
27. A nurse has formulated a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed Body Image for a client who is taking spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse based this diagnosis on assessment of which side effect of the medication?
b. weight gain
d. decreased libido
Spironolactone (Aldactone) is a potassium-sparing diuretic. The nurse should be alert to the fact that the client taking spironolactone may experience body image changes due to threatened sexual identity. These body image changes are related to decreased libido, gynecomastia in males, and hirsutism in females. Since the medication is a diuretic, edema and weight gain should not occur. Excitability is not associated with the use of this medication; rather, drowsiness may occur.
28. A nurse is caring for the client with a history of mild heart failure who is receiving diltiazem hydrochloride (Cardizem) for hypertension. The nurse would assess the client for:
c. peripheral edema and weight gain
d. apical pulse rate lower than baseline
Calcium channel blocking agents, such as diltiazem hydrochloride (Cardizem), are used cautiously in clients with conditions that could be worsened by the medication. These conditions include aortic stenosis, bradycardia, heart failure, acute myocardial infarction, and hypotension. The nurse would assess for signs and symptoms that indicate worsening of these underlying disorders. In this question, the nurse assesses for signs and symptoms indicating heart failure.
29. The wound of a client with an extensive burn injury is being treated with the application of silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene). Which symptom would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a side effect related to systemic absorption?
a. pain at the wound site
b. burning and itching at the wound site
c. a localized rash
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) is a cream used for extensive burn wounds. Significant systemic absorption may occur if applied to extensive burns. Side effects of the medication include pain, burning, itching and a localized rash. Systemic side effects include anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, diarrhea, dizziness, photosensitivity, and joint pain.
30. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis who is receiving sulindac (Clinoril) 150 mg po twice daily. Which finding would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a side effect related to the medication?
d. tingling in the extremities
Sulindac (Clinoril) is a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medication (NSAID). Frequent side effects include gastrointestinal (GI) disturbances including constipation or diarrhea, indigestion, and nausea. Dermatitis, a rash, dizziness, and a headache are also frequent side effects.
31. The nurse notes that the client is receiving filgrastim (Neupogen). The nurse checks which of the following to determine medication effectiveness?
a. neutrophil count
b. platelet count
c. blood urea nitrogen
d. creatinine level
Filgrastim is a biologic modifier that stimulates production, maturation, and activation of neutrophils. Therefore the nurse would monitor the client’s neutrophil count. The platelet count measures the amount of platelets; a decreased level places the client at risk for bleeding. The blood urea nitrogen and creatinine level measures renal function.
32. A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin) for signs of leucopenia. Which finding indicates a sign of this blood dyscrasia?
a. blurred vision
c. sore throat
d. dry mouth
Blood dyscrasias can occur as an adverse effect of fluphenazine decanoate. Leukopenia is indicative of a low white blood cell count and places the client at risk for infection. The nurse would monitor the client for signs of infection such as a sore mouth, gums, or throat. Blurred vision, dry mouth, and constipation are occasional side effects of the medication but are not indicative of leukopenia.
33. A nurse is administering amphotericin B (Fungizone) to a client intravenously to treat a fungal infection. The nurse monitors the result of which electrolyte study during therapy with this medication?
Life-threatening hypokalemia can occur with the administration of amphotericin B. Therefore, the nurse monitors the results of serum potassium levels, which should be prescribed at least biweekly during therapy. Magnesium levels should also be monitored.
34. A clinic nurse asks a client with diabetes mellitus being seen in the clinic for the first time to list the medications that she is taking. Which combination of medications taken by the client should the nurse report to the physician?
a. Acetohexamide (Dymelor) and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
b. Chlorpropamide (Diabenase) and amitriptyline (Elavil)
c. Glyburide (DiaBeta) and Lanoxin (Digoxin)
d. Tolbutamide (Orinase) and amoxicillin (Amoxil)
Sulfonylureas are hypoglycemic agents that lower the blood glucose. Acetohexamide (Dymelor), chlorpropamide (Diabinese), glyburide (DiaBeta), and tolbutamide (Orinase) are sulfonylureas. If a sulfonylureas is administered with a sulfonamide (option a), increased glycemic effects can occur.
35. A nurse is caring for a client receiving streptogramin (Synercid) by intravenous intermittent infusion for the treatment of a bone infection develops diarrhea. Which nursing action would the nurse implement?
a. administer an antidiarrheal agent
b. notify the physician
c. discontinue the medication
d. monitor the client’s temperature
Synercid is an antimicrobial agent. One adverse effect of the medication is superinfection, including antibiotic-associated colitis, which may result from bacterial imbalance. If the client develops diarrhea, the medication should be withheld, and the physician is notified. The nurse would not discontinue the medication. The nurse would not administer an antidiarrheal unless specifically prescribed by the physician.
36. A client has been taking fosinopril (Monopril) for 2 months. The nurse determines that the client is having the intended effects of therapy if the nurse notes which of the following?
a. lowered BP
b. lowered pulse rate
c. increased WBC
d. increased monocyte count
Monopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that lowers blood pressure. It can cause tachycardia as a side effect of therapy, making option b incorrect. Other side effects of the medication are neutropenia and agranulocytopenia, making options c and d incorrect.
37. A client is taking labetalol (Normodyne). The nurse monitors the client for which frequent side effect of the medication?
c. increased energy level
d. night blindness
Impotence is a common side effect of labetalol and may be distressing to the client. Other side effects of this medication are bradycardia, weakness, and fatigue. Night blindness is unrelated to this medication, although this medication can cause blurred vision and dry eyes.
38. An older client has been using cascara sagrada on a long-term basis. The nurse determines that which laboratory result is a result of the side effects of this medication?
a. sodium 135 mEq/L
b. sodium 145 mEq/L
c. potassium 3.1 mEq/L
d. potassium 5.0 mEq/L
Hypokalemia can result from long-term use of casanthrol (cascara sagrada), which is a laxative. The medication stimulates peristalsis and alters fluid and electrolyte transport, thus helping fluid to accumulate in the colon. The normal range for potassium is 3.5 to 5.1 mEq/L. The normal range for sodium is 135 to 145 mEq/L.
39. A client has an order to begin short-term therapy with enoxaparin (Lovenox). The nurse explains to the client that this medication is being ordered to:
a. dissolve urinary calculi
b. reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis
c. relieve migraine headaches
d. stop progression of multiple sclerosis
Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that is administered to prevent deep vein thrombosis and thromboembolism in selected clients at risk. It is not used to treat urinary calculi, migraine headaches, or multiple sclerosis.
40. Quinidine gluconate (Dura Quin) is prescribed for a client. The nurse reviews the client’s medical record, knowing that which of the following is a contraindication in the use of this medication?
a. complete atrioventricular (AV) block
b. muscle weakness
Quinidine gluconate is an antidysrhythmic medication used as prophylactic therapy to maintain normal sinus rhythm after conversion of atrial fibrillation and/or atrial flutter. It is contraindicated in complete AV block, intraventricular conduction defects, abnormal impulses and rhythms caused by escape mechanisms, and in myasthenia gravis. It is used with caution in clients with preexisting asthma, muscle weakness, infection with fever, and hepatic or renal insufficiency.
41. A client has been taking benzonatate (Tessalon) as ordered. The nurse tells the client that this medication should do which of the following?
a. take away nausea and vomiting
b. calm the persistent cough
c. decrease anxiety level
d. increase comfort level
Benzonatate is a locally acting antitussive. Its effectiveness is measured by the degree to which it decreases the intensity and frequency of cough, without eliminating the cough reflex.
42. Auranofin (Ridaura) is prescribed for a client with rheumatoid arthritis, and the nurse monitors the client for signs of an adverse effect related to the medication. Which of the following indicates an adverse effect?
Auranofin (Ridaura) is a gold preparation that is used as an antirheumatic. Gold toxicity is an adverse effect and is evidenced by decreased hemoglobin, leukopenia, reduced granulocyte counts, proteinuria, hematuria, stomatitis,
glomerulonephritis, nephrotic syndrome, or cholestatic jaundice. Anorexia, nausea, and diarrhea are frequent side effects of the medication.
43. A nurse is providing instructions to a client regarding quinapril hydrochloride (Accupril). The nurse tells the client:
a. to take the medication with food only
b. to rise slowly from a lying to a sitting position
c. to discontinue the medication if nausea occurs
d. that a therapeutic effect will be noted immediately
Accupril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. It is used in the treatment of hypertension. The client should be instructed to rise slowly from a lying to sitting position and to permit the legs to dangle from the bed momentarily before standing to reduce the hypotensive effect. The medication does not need to be taken with meals. It may be given without regard to food. If nausea occurs, the client should be instructed to take a noncola carbonated beverage and salted crackers or dry toast. A full therapeutic effect may be noted in 1 to 2 weeks.
44. A female client tells the clinic nurse that her skin is very dry and irritated. Which product would the nurse suggest that the client apply to the dry skin?
a. glycerin emollient
d. acetic acid solution
Glycerin is an emollient that is used for dry, cracked, and irritated skin. Aspercreame and Myoflex are used to treat muscular aches. Acetic acid solution is used for irrigating, cleansing, and packing wounds infected by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
45. A client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver is not tolerating protein well, as eveidenced by abnormal laboratory values. The nurse anticipates that which of the following medications will be prescribed for the client?
a. lactulose (Chronulac)
b. ethacrynic acid (Edecrin)
c. folic acid (Folvite)
d. thiamine (Vitamin B1)
The client with cirrhosis has impaired ability to metabolize protein because of liver dysfunction. Administration of lactulose aids in the clearance of ammonia via the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. Ethacrynic acid is a diuretic. Folic
acid and thiamine are vitamins, which may be used in clients with liver disease as supplemental therapy.
46. A nurse is planning dietary counseling for the client taking triamterene (Dyrenium). The nurse plans to include which of the following in a list of foods that are acceptable?
a. baked potato
d. pears canned in water
Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and clients taking this medication should be cautioned against eating foods that are high in potassium, including many vegetables, fruits, and fresh meats. Because potassium is very water-soluble, foods that are prepared in water are often lower in potassium.
47. A client is taking famotidine (Pepcid) asks the home care nurse what would be the best medication to take for a headache. The nurse tells the client that it would be best to take:
a. aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid, ASA)
b. ibuprofen (Motrin)
c. acetaminophen (Tylenol)
d. naproxen (Naprosyn)
The client is taking famotidine, a histamine receptor antagonist. This implies that the client has a disorder characterized by gastrointestinal (GI) irritation. The only medication of the ones listed in the options that is not irritating to the GI tract is acetaminophen. The other medications could aggravate an already existing GI problem.
48. A nurse has taught a client taking a xanthine bronchodilator about beverages to avoid. The nurse determines that the client understands the information if the client chooses which of the following beverages from the dietary menu?
a. chocolate milk
b. cranberry juice
Cola, coffee, and chocolate contain xanthine and should be avoided by the client taking a xanthine bronchodilator. This could lead to an increased incidence of cardiovascular and central nervous system side effects that can occur with the use of these types of bronchodilators.
49. A client with histoplasmosis has an order for ketoconazole (Nizoral). The nurse teaches the client to do which of the following while taking this medication?
a. take the medication on an empty stomach
b. take the medication with an antacid
c. avoid exposure to sunlight
d. limit alcohol to 2 ounces per day
The client should be taught that ketoconazole is an antifungal medication. It should be taken with food or milk. Antacids should be avoided for 2 hours after it is taken because gastric acid is needed to activate the medication. The client should avoid concurrent use of alcohol, because the medication is hepatotoxic. The client should also avoid exposure to sunlight, because the medication increases photosensitivity.
50. A nurse is preparing the client’s morning NPH insulin dose and notices a clumpy precipitate inside the insulin vial. The nurse should:
a. draw up and administer the dose
b. shake the vial in an attempt to disperse the clumps
c. draw the dose from a new vial
d. warm the bottle under running water to dissolve the clump
The nurse should always inspect the vial of insulin before use for solution changes that may signify loss of potency. NPH insulin is normally uniformly cloudy. Clumping, frosting, and precipitates are signs of insulin damage. In this situation, because potency is questionable, it is safer to discard the vial and draw up the dose from a new vial.
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