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Monday, July 30, 2007

Obstetrics-Maternal And Child Health Nursing Practice Test

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SITUATION : Aling Martha, a 32 year old fish vendor from baranggay matahimik came to see you at the prenatal clinic. She brought with her all her three children. Maye, 1 year 6 months; Joy, 3 and Dan, 7 years old. She mentioned that she stopped taking oral contraceptives several months ago and now suspects she is pregnant. She cannot remember her LMP.

1. Which of the following would be useful in calculating Aling Martha's EDC?

A. Appearance of linea negra
B. First FHT by fetoscope
C. Increase pulse rate
D. Presence of edema

2. Which hormone is necessary for a positive pregnancy test?

A. Progesterone
B. HCG
C. Estrogen
D. Placental Lactogen

3. With this pregnancy, Aling Martha is a

A. P3 G3
B. Primigravida
C. P3 G4
D. P0 G3

4. In explaining the development of her baby, you identified in chronological order of growth of the fetus as it occurs in pregnancy as

A. Ovum, embryo, zygote, fetus, infant
B. Zygote, ovum, embryo, fetus, infant
C. Ovum, zygote, embryo, fetus, infant
D. Zygote, ovum, fetus, embryo, infant

5. Aling Martha states she is happy to be pregnant. Which behavior is elicited by her during your assessment that would lead you to think she is stressed?

A. She told you about her drunk husband
B. She states she has very meager income from selling
C. She laughs at every advise you give even when its not funny
D. She has difficulty following instructions

6. When teaching Aling Martha about her pregnancy, you should include personal common discomforts. Which of the following is an indication for prompt professional supervision?

A. Constipation and hemorrhoids
B. Backache
C. Facial edema
D. frequent urination

7. Which of the following statements would be appropriate for you to include in Aling Martha's prenatal teaching plan?

A. Exercise is very tiresome, it should be avoided
B. Limit your food intake
C. Smoking has no harmful effect on the growth and development of fetus
D. Avoid unnecessary fatigue, rest periods should be included in you schedule

8. The best advise you can give to Aling Martha regarding prevention of varicosities is

A. Raise the legs while in upright position and put it against the wall several times a day
B. Lay flat for most hours of the day
C. Use garters with nylon stocking
D. Wear support hose

9. In a 32 day menstrual cycle, ovulation usually occurs on the

A. 14th day after menstruation
B. 18th day after menstruation
C. 20th day after menstruation
D. 24th day after menstruation

10. Placenta is the organ that provides exchange of nutrients and waste products between mother and fetus. This develops by

A. First month
B. Third month
C. Fifth month
D. Seventh month

11. In evaluating the weight gain of Aling Martha, you know the minimum weight gain during pregnancy is

A. 2 lbs/wk
B. 5 lbs/wk
C. 7 lbs/wk
D. 10 lbs/wk

12. The more accurate method of measuring fundal height is

A. Millimeter
B. Centimeter
C. Inches
D. Fingerbreadths

13. To determine fetal position using Leopold's maneuvers, the first maneuver is to

A. Determine degree of cephalic flexion and engagement
B. Determine part of fetus presenting into pelvis
C. Locate the back,arms and legs
D. Determine what part of fetus is in the fundus

14. Aling Martha has encouraged her husband to attend prenatal classes with her. During the prenatal class, the couple expressed fear of pain during labor and delivery. The use of touch and soothing voice often promotes comfort to the laboring patient. This physical intervention is effective because

A. Pain perception is interrupted
B. Gate control fibers are open
C. It distracts the client away from the pain
D. Empathy is communicated by a caring person

15. Which of the following could be considered as a positive sign of pregnancy ?

A. Amenorrhea, nausea, vomiting
B. Frequency of urination
C. Braxton hicks contraction
D. Fetal outline by sonography

SITUATION : Maternal and child health is the program of the department of health created to lessen the death of infants and mother in the Philippines.

16. What is the goal of this program?

A. Promote mother and infant health especially during the gravida stage
B. Training of local hilots
C. Direct supervision of midwives during home delivery
D. Health teaching to mother regarding proper newborn care

17. One philosophy of the maternal and child health nursing is

A. All pregnancy experiences are the same for all woman
B. Culture and religious practices have little effect on pregnancy of a woman
C. Pregnancy is a part of the life cycle but provides no meaning
D. The father is as important as the mother

18. In maternal care, the PHN responsibility is

A. To secure all information that would be needing in birth certificate
B. To protect the baby against tetanus neonatorum by immunizing the mother with DPT
C. To reach all pregnant woman
D. To assess nutritional status of existing children

19. This is use when rendering prenatal care in the rural health unit. It serves as a guide in Identification of risk factors

A. Underfive clinic chart
B. Home based mother's record
C. Client list of mother under prenatal care
D. Target list of woman under TT vaccination

20. The schedule of prenatal visit in the RHU unit is

A. Once from 1st up to 8th month, weekly on the 9th month
B. Twice in 1st and second trimester, weekly on third trimester
C. Once in each trimester, more frequent for those at risk
D. Frequent as possible to determine the presence of FHT each week

SITUATION : Knowledge of the menstrual cycle is important in maternal health nursing. The following questions pertains to the process of menstruation

21. Menarche occurs during the pubertal period, Which of the following occurs first in the development of female sex characteristics?

A. Menarche
B. Accelerated Linear Growth
C. Breast development
D. Growth of pubic hair

22. Which gland is responsible for initiating the menstrual cycle?

A. Ovaries
B. APG
C. PPG
D. Hypothalamus

23. The hormone that stimulates the ovaries to produce estrogen is

A. GnRH
B. LH
C. LHRF
D. FSH

24. Which hormone stimulates oocyte maturation?

A. GnRH
B. LH
C. LHRF
D. FSH

25. When is the serum estrogen level highest in the menstrual cycle?

A. 3rd day
B. 13th day
C. 14th day
D. End of menstrual cycle

26. To correctly determine the day of ovulation, the nurse must

A. Deduct 14 days at the mid of the cycle
B. Subtract two weeks at cycle's end
C. Add 7 days from mid of the cycle
D. Add 14 days from the end of the cycle

27. The serum progesterone is lowest during what day of the menstrual cycle?

A. 3rd day
B. 13th day
C. 14th day
D. End of menstrual cycle

28. How much blood is loss on the average during menstrual period?

A. Half cup
B. 4 tablespoon
C. 3 ounces
D. 1/3 cup

29. Menstruation occurs because of which following mechanism?

A. Increase level of estrogen and progesterone level
B. Degeneration of the corpus luteum
C. Increase vascularity of the endothelium
D. Surge of hormone progesterone

30. If the menstrual cycle of a woman is 35 day cycle, she will approximately

A. Ovulate on the 21st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 26th day of her cycle
B. Ovulate on the 21st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 21th day of her cycle
C. Ovulate on the 22st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 26th day of her cycle
D. Ovulate on the 22st day with fertile days beginning on the 14th day to the 30th day of her cycle

SITUATION : Wide knowledge about different diagnostic tests during pregnancy is an essential arsenal for a nurse to be successful.

31. The Biparietal diameter of a fetus is considered matured if it is atleast

A. 9.8 cm
B. 8.5 cm
C. 7.5 cm
D. 6 cm

32. Quickening is experienced first by multigravida clients. At what week of gestation do they start to experience quickening?

A. 16th
B. 20th
C. 24th
D. 28th

33. Before the start of a non stress test, The FHR is 120 BPM. The mother ate the snack and the practitioner noticed an increase from 120 BPM to 135 BPM for 15 seconds. How would you read the result?

A. Abnormal
B. Non reactive
C. Reactive
D. Inconclusive, needs repeat

34. When should the nurse expect to hear the FHR using a fetoscope?

A. 2nd week
B. 8th week
C. 2nd month
D. 4th month

35. When should the nurse expect to hear FHR using doppler Ultrasound?

A. 8th week
B. 8th month
C. 2nd week
D. 4th month

36. The mother asks, What does it means if her maternal serum alph feto protein is 35 ng/ml? The nurse should answer

A. It is normal
B. It is not normal
C. 35 ng/ml indicates chromosomal abberation
D. 35 ng/ml indicates neural tube defect

37. Which of the following mothers needs RHOGAM?

A. RH + mother who delivered an RH - fetus
B. RH - mother who delivered an RH + fetus
C. RH + mother who delivered an RH + fetus
D. RH - mother who delivered an RH - fetus

38. Which family planning method is recommended by the department of health more than any other means of contraception?

A. Fertility Awareness Method
B. Condom
C. Tubal Ligation
D. Abstinence

39. How much booster dose does tetanus toxoid vaccination for pregnant women has?

A. 2
B. 5
C. 3
D. 4

40. Baranggay pinoybsn.tk has 70,000 population. How much nurse is needed to service this population?

A. 5
B. 7
C. 50
D. 70

SITUATION : Reproductive health is the exercise of reproductive right with responsibility. A married couple has the responsibility to reproduce and procreate.

41. Which of the following is ONE of the goals of the reproductive health concept?

A. To achieve healthy sexual development and maturation
B. To prevent specific RH problem through counseling
C. Provide care, treatment and rehabilitation
D. To practice RH as a way of life of every man and woman

42. Which of the following is NOT an element of the reproductive health?

A. Maternal and child health and nutrition
B. Family planning
C. Prevention and management of abortion complication
D. Healthy sexual development and nutrition

43. In the international framework of RH, which one of the following is the ultimate goal?

A. Women's health in reproduction
B. Attainment of optimum health
C. Achievement of women's status
D. Quality of life

44. Which one of the following is a determinant of RH affecting woman's ability to participate in social affairs?

A. Gender issues
B. Socio-Economic condition
C. Cultural and psychosocial factors
D. Status of women

45. In the philippine RH Framework. which major factor affects RH status?

A. Women's lower level of literacy
B. Health service delivery mechanism
C. Poor living conditions lead to illness
D. Commercial sex workers are exposed to AIDS/STD.

46. Which determinant of reproductive health advocates nutrition for better health promotion and maintain a healthful life?

A. Socio-Economic conditions
B. Status of women
C. Social and gender issues
D. Biological, Cultural and Psychosocial factors

47. Which of the following is NOT a strategy of RH?

A. Increase and improve contraceptive methods
B. Achieve reproductive intentions
C. Care provision focused on people with RH problems
D. Prevent specific RH problem through information dessemination

48. Which of the following is NOT a goal of RH?

A. Achieve healthy sexual development and maturation
B. Avoid illness/diseases, injuries, disabilities related to sexuality and reproduction
C. Receive appropriate counseling and care of RH problems
D. Strengthen outreach activities and the referral system

49. What is the VISION of the RH?

A. Attain QUALITY OF LIFE
B. Practice RH as a WAY OF LIFE
C. Prevent specific RH problem
D. Health in the hands of the filipino

SITUATION : Baby G, a 6 hours old newborn is admitted to the NICU because of low APGAR Score. His mother had a prolonged second stage of labor

50. Which of the following is the most important concept associated with all high risk newborn?

A. Support the high-risk newborn's cardiopulmonary adaptation by maintaining adequate airway
B. Identify complications with early intervention in the high risk newborn to reduce morbidity and mortality
C. Assess the high risk newborn for any physical complications that will assist the parent with bonding
D. Support mother and significant others in their request toward adaptation to the high risk newborn

51. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in a newborn with birth asphyxia?

A. Hyperoxemia
B. Acidosis
C. Hypocapnia
D. Ketosis

52. When planning and implementing care for the newborn that has been successfully resuscitated, which of the following would be important to assess?

A. Muscle flaccidity
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Decreased intracranial pressure
D. Spontaneous respiration

SITUATION : Nurses should be aware of the different reproductive problems.

53. When is the best time to achieve pregnancy?

A. Midway between periods
B. Immediately after menses end
C. 14 days before the next period is expected
D. 14 days after the beginning of the next period

54. A factor in infertility maybe related to the PH of the vaginal canal. A medication that is ordered to alter the vaginal PH is:

A. Estrogen therapy
B. Sulfur insufflations
C. Lactic acid douches
D. Na HCO3 Douches

55. A diagnostic test used to evaluate fertility is the postcoital test. It is best timed

A. 1 week after ovulation
B. Immediately after menses
C. Just before the next menstrual period
D. Within 1 to 2 days of presumed ovulation

56. A tubal insufflation test is done to determine whether there is a tubal obstruction. Infertility caused by a defect in the tube is most often related to a

A. Past infection
B. Fibroid Tumor
C. Congenital Anomaly
D. Previous injury to a tube

57. Which test is commonly used to determine the number, motility and activity of sperm is the

A. Rubin test
B. Huhner test
C. Friedman test
D. Papanicolau test

58. In the female, Evaluation of the pelvic organs of reproduction is accomplished by

A. Biopsy
B. Cystoscopy
C. Culdoscopy
D. Hysterosalpingogram

59. When is the fetal weight gain greatest?

A. 1st trimester
B. 2nd trimester
C. 3rd trimester
D. from 4th week up to 16th week of pregnancy

60. In fetal blood vessel, where is the oxygen content highest?

A. Umbilical artery
B. Ductus Venosus
C. Ductus areteriosus
D. Pulmonary artery

61. The nurse is caring for a woman in labor. The woman is irritable, complains of nausea and vomits and has heavier show. The membranes rupture. The nurse understands that this indicates

A. The woman is in transition stage of labor
B. The woman is having a complication and the doctor should be notified
C. Labor is slowing down and the woman may need oxytocin
D. The woman is emotionally distraught and needs assistance in dealing with labor

SITUATION : Cynthia, a 32 year old primigravida at 39-40 weeks AOG was admitted to the labor room due to hypogastric and lumbo-sacral pains. IE revealed a fully dilated, fully effaced cervix. Station 0.

62. She is immediately transferred to the DR table. Which of the following conditions signify that delivery is near?

I - A desire to defecate
II - Begins to bear down with uterine contraction
III - Perineum bulges
IV - Uterine contraction occur 2-3 minutes intervals at 50 seconds duration

A. I,II,III
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,III,IV
D. II,III,IV

63. Artificial rupture of the membrane is done. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is the priority?

A. High risk for infection related to membrane rupture
B. Potential for injury related to prolapse cord
C. Alteration in comfort related to increasing strength of uterine contraction
D. Anxiety related to unfamiliar procedure

64. Cynthia complains of severe abdominal pain and back pain during contraction. Which two of the following measures will be MOST effective in reducing pain?

I - Rubbing the back with a tennis ball
II- Effleurage
III-Imagery
IV-Breathing techniques

A. II,IV
B. II,III
C. I,IV
D. I,II

65. Lumbar epidural anesthesia is administered. Which of the following nursing responsibilities should be done immediately following procedure?

A. Reposition from side to side
B. Administer oxygen
C. Increase IV fluid as indicated
D. Assess for maternal hypotension

66. Which is NOT the drug of choice for epidural anesthesia?

A. Sensorcaine
B. Xylocaine
C. Ephedrine
D. Marcaine

SITUATION : Helen, a 24 year old G4P3 at full term gestation is brought to the ER after a gush of fluid passes through here vagina while doing her holiday shopping.

67. She is brought to the triage unit. The FHT is noted to be 114 bpm. Which of the following actions should the nurse do first?

A. Monitor FHT ever 15 minutes
B. Administer oxygen inhalation
C. Ask the charge nurse to notify the Obstetrician
D. Place her on the left lateral position

68. The nurse checks the perineum of Helen. Which of the following characteristic of the amniotic fluid would cause an alarm to the nurse?

A. Greenish
B. Scantly
C. Colorless
D. Blood tinged

69. Helen asks the nurse. "Why do I have to be on complete bed rest? I am not comfortable in this position." Which of the following response of the nurse is most appropriate?

A. Keeping you on bed rest will prevent possible cord prolapse
B. Completed bed rest will prevent more amniotic fluid to escape
C. You need to save your energy so you will be strong enough to push later
D. Let us ask your obstetrician when she returns to check on you

70. Helen wants to know how many fetal movements per hour is normal, the correct response is

A. Twice
B. Thrice
C. Four times
D. 10-12 times

71. Upon examination by the obstetrician, he charted that Helen is in the early stage of labor. Which of the following is true in this state?

A. Self-focused
B. Effacement is 100%
C. Last for 2 hours
D. Cervical dilation 1-3 cm

SITUATION : Maternal and child health nursing a core concept of providing health in the community. Mastery of MCH Nursing is a quality all nurse should possess.

72. When should be the 2nd visit of a pregnant mother to the RHU?

A. Before getting pregnant
B. As early in pregnancy
C. Second trimester
D. Third trimester

73. Which of the following is NOT a standard prenatal physical examination?

A. Neck examination for goiter
B. Examination of the palms of the hands for pallor
C. Edema examination of the face hands, and lower extremeties
D. Examination of the legs for varicosities

74. Which of the following is NOT a basic prenatal service delivery done in the BHS?

A. Oral/Dental check up
B. Laboratory examination
C. Treatment of diseases
D. Iron supplementation

75. How many days and how much dosage will the IRON supplementation be taken?

A. 365 days / 300 mg
B. 210 days / 200 mg
C. 100 days/ 100mg
D. 50 days / 50 mg

76. When should the iron supplementation starts and when should it ends?

A. 5th month of pregnancy to 2nd month post partum
B. 1st month of pregnancy to 5th month post partum
C. As early in pregnancy up to 9th month of pregnancy
D. From 1st trimester up to 6 weeks post partum

77. In malaria infested area, how is chloroquine given to pregnant women?

A. 300 mg / twice a month for 9 months
B. 200 mg / once a week for 5 months
C. 150 mg / twice a week for the duration of pregnancy
D. 100 mg / twice a week for the last trimester of pregnancy

78. Which of the following mothers are qualified for home delivery?

A. Pre term
B. 6th pregnancy
C. Has a history of hemorrhage last pregnancy
D. 2nd pregnancy, Has a history of 20 hours of labor last pregnancy.

79. Which of the following is not included on the 3 Cs of delivery?

A. Clean Surface
B. Clean Hands
C. Clean Equipments
D. Clean Cord

80. Which of the following is unnecessary equipment to be included in the home delivery kit?

A. Boiled razor blade
B. 70% Isopropyl Alcohol
C. Flashlight
D. Rectal and oral thermometer

SITUATION : Pillar is admitted to the hospital with the following signs : Contractions coming every 10 minutes, lasting 30 seconds and causing little discomfort. Intact membranes without any bloody shows. Stable vital signs. FHR = 130bpm. Examination reveals cervix is 3 cm dilated with vertex presenting at minus 1 station.

81. On the basis of the data provided above, You can conclude the pillar is in the

A. In false labor
B. In the active phase of labor
C. In the latent phase of labor
D. In the transitional phase of labor

82. Pitocin drip is started on Pilar. Possible side effects of pitocin administration include all of the following except

A. Diuresis
B. Hypertension
C. Water intoxication
D. Cerebral hemorrhage

83. The normal range of FHR is approximately

A. 90 to 140 bpm
B. 120 to 160 bpm
C. 100 to 140 bpm
D. 140 to 180 bpm

84. A negative 1 [-1] station means that

A. Fetus is crowning
B. Fetus is floating
C. Fetus is engaged
D. Fetus is at the ischial spine

85. Which of the following is characteristics of false labor

A. Bloody show
B. Contraction that are regular and increase in frequency and duration
C. Contraction are felt in the back and radiates towards the abdomen
D. None of the above

86. Who's Theory of labor pain that states that PAIN in labor is cause by FEAR

A. Bradley
B. Simpson
C. Lamaze
D. Dick-Read

87. Which sign would alert the nurse that Pillar is entering the second stage of labor?

A. Increase frequency and intensity of contraction
B. Perineum bulges and anal orifice dilates
C. Effacement of internal OS is 100%
D. Vulva encircles the largest diameter of presenting part

88. Nursing care during the second stage of labor should include

A. Careful evaluation of prenatal history
B. Coach breathing, Bear down with each contraction and encourage patient.
C. Shave the perineum
D. Administer enema to the patient

SITUATION : Baby boy Jose was delivered spontaneously following a term pregnancy. Apgar scores are 8 and 9 respectively. Routine procedures are carried out.

89. When is the APGAR Score taken?

A. Immediately after birth and at 30 minutes after birth
B. At 5 minutes after birth and at 30 minutes after birth
C. At 1 minute after birth and at 5 minutes after birth
D. Immediately after birth and at 5 minutes after birth

90. The best way to position a newboarn during the first week of life is to lay him

A. Prone with head slightly elevated
B. On his back, flat
C. On his side with his head flat on bed
D. On his back with head slightly elevated

91. Baby boy Jose has a large sebaceous glands on his nose, chin, and forehead. These are known as

A. Milia
B. Lanugo
C. Hemangiomas
D. Mongolian spots

92. Baby boy Jose must be carefully observed for the first 24 hours for

A. Respiratory distress
B. Duration of cry
C. Frequency of voiding
D. Range in body temperature

93. According to the WHO , when should the mother starts breastfeeding the infant?

A. Within 30 minutes after birth
B. Within 12 hours after birth
C. Within a day after birth
D. After infant's condition stabilizes

94. What is the BEST and most accurate method of measuring the medication dosage for infants and children?

A. Weight
B. Height
C. Nomogram
D. Weight and Height

95. The first postpartum visit should be done by the mother within

A. 24 hours
B. 3 days
C. a week
D. a month

96. The major cause of maternal mortality in the Philippines is

A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Hypertension
D. Other complications related to labor,delivery and puerperium

97. According to the WHO, what should be the composition of a commercialized Oral rehydration salt solution?

A. Potassium : 1.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 2.5g ; Sodium Chloride 3.5g; Glucose 20 g.
A. Potassium : 1.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 2.5g ; Sodium Chloride 3.5g; Glucose 10 g.
A. Potassium : 2.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 3.5g ; Sodium Chloride 4.5g; Glucose 20 g.
A. Potassium : 2.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 3.5g ; Sodium Chloride 4.5g; Glucose 10 g.

98. In preparing ORESOL at home, The correct composition recommnded by the DOH is

A. 1 glass of water, 1 pinch of salt and 2 tsp of sugar
B. 1 glass of water, 2 pinch of salt and 2 tsp of sugar
C. 1 glass of water, 3 pinch of salt and 4 tsp of sugar
D. 1 glass of water, 1 pinch of salt and 1 tsp of sugar

99. Milk code is a law that prohibits milk commercialization or artificial feeding for up to 2 years. Which law provides its legal basis?

A. Senate bill 1044
B. RA 7600
C. Presidential Proclamation 147
D. EO 51

100. A 40 year old mother in her third trimester should avoid?

A. Traveling
B. Climbing
C. Smoking
D. Exercising


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href="http://philippinenurses.blogspot.com/2007/12/nclex-question-trainer-explanat

ions_9502.html">Nclex Question Trainer Explanations Test 7


Saturday, July 28, 2007

Medical Surgical Nursing Test

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SITUATION : Arthur, A registered nurse, witnessed an old woman hit by a motorcycle while crossing a train railway. The old woman fell at the railway. Arthur rushed at the scene.

1. As a registered nurse, Arthur knew that the first thing that he will do at the scene is

A. Stay with the person, Encourage her to remain still and Immobilize the leg while
While waiting for the ambulance.
B. Leave the person for a few moments to call for help.
C. Reduce the fracture manually.
D. Move the person to a safer place.

2. Arthur suspects a hip fracture when he noticed that the old woman’s leg is

A. Lengthened, Abducted and Internally Rotated.
B. Shortened, Abducted and Externally Rotated.
C. Shortened, Adducted and Internally Rotated.
D. Shortened, Adducted and Externally Rotated.

3. The old woman complains of pain. John noticed that the knee is reddened, warm to touch and swollen. John interprets that this signs and symptoms are likely related to

A. Infection
B. Thrombophlebitis
C. Inflammation
D. Degenerative disease

4. The old woman told John that she has osteoporosis; Arthur knew that all of the following factors would contribute to osteoporosis except

A. Hypothyroidism
B. End stage renal disease
C. Cushing’s Disease
D. Taking Furosemide and Phenytoin.

5. Martha, The old woman was now Immobilized and brought to the emergency room. The X-ray shows a fractured femur and pelvis. The ER Nurse would carefully monitor Martha for which of the following sign and symptoms?

A. Tachycardia and Hypotension
B. Fever and Bradycardia
C. Bradycardia and Hypertension
D. Fever and Hypertension

SITUATION: Mr. D. Rojas, An obese 35 year old MS Professor of OLFU Lagro is admitted due to pain in his weight bearing joint. The diagnosis was Osteoarthritis.

6. As a nurse, you instructed Mr. Rojas how to use a cane. Mr. Rojas has a weakness on his right leg due to self immobilization and guarding. You plan to teach Mr. Rojas to hold the cane

A. On his left hand, because his right side is weak.
B. On his left hand, because of reciprocal motion.
C. On his right hand, to support the right leg.
D. On his right hand, because only his right leg is weak.

7. You also told Mr. Rojas to hold the cane

A. 1 Inches in front of the foot.
B. 3 Inches at the lateral side of the foot.
c. 6 Inches at the lateral side of the foot.
D. 12 Inches at the lateral side of the foot.

8. Mr. Rojas was discharged and 6 months later, he came back to the emergency room of the hospital because he suffered a mild stroke. The right side of the brain was affected. At the rehabilitative phase of your nursing care, you observe Mr. Rojas use a cane and you intervene if you see him

A. Moves the cane when the right leg is moved.
B. Leans on the cane when the right leg swings through.
C. keeps the cane 6 Inches out to the side of the right foot.
D. Holds the cane on the right side.

SITUATION: Alfred, a 40 year old construction worker developed cough, night sweats and fever. He was brought to the nursing unit for diagnostic studies. He told the nurse he did not receive a BCG vaccine during childhood

9. The nurse performs a Mantoux Test. The nurse knows that Mantoux Test is also known as

A. PPD
B. PDP
C. PDD
D. DPP

10. The nurse would inject the solution in what route?

A. IM
B. IV
C. ID
D. SC

11. The nurse notes that a positive result for Alfred is

A. 5 mm wheal
B. 5 mm Induration
C. 10 mm Wheal
D. 10 mm Induration

12. The nurse told Alfred to come back after

A. a week
B. 48 hours
C. 1 day
D. 4 days

13. Mang Alfred returns after the Mantoux Test. The test result read POSITIVE. What should be the nurse’s next action?

A. Call the Physician
B. Notify the radiology dept. for CXR evaluation
C. Isolate the patient
D. Order for a sputum exam

14. Why is Mantoux test not routinely done in the Philippines?

A. It requires a highly skilled nurse to perform a Mantoux test
B. The sputum culture is the gold standard of PTB Diagnosis and it will definitively determine the extent of the cavitary lesions
C. Chest X Ray Can diagnose the specific microorganism responsible for the lesions
D. Almost all Filipinos will test positive for Mantoux Test

15. Mang Alfred is now a new TB patient with an active disease. What is his category according to the DOH?

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

16. How long is the duration of the maintenance phase of his treatment?

A. 2 months
B. 3 months
C. 4 months
D. 5 months

17. Which of the following drugs is UNLIKELY given to Mang Alfred during the maintenance phase?

A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyridoxine

18. According to the DOH, the most hazardous period for development of clinical disease is during the first

A. 6-12 months after
B. 3-6 months after
C. 1-2 months after
D. 2-4 weeks after

19. This is the name of the program of the DOH to control TB in the country

A. DOTS
B. National Tuberculosis Control Program
C. Short Coursed Chemotherapy
D. Expanded Program for Immunization

20. Susceptibility for the disease [ TB ] is increased markedly in those with the following condition except

A. 23 Year old athlete with diabetes insipidus
B. 23 Year old athlete taking long term Decadron therapy and anabolic steroids
C. 23 Year old athlete taking illegal drugs and abusing substances
D. Undernourished and Underweight individual who undergone gastrectomy

21. Direct sputum examination and Chest X ray of TB symptomatic is in what level of prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quarterly

SITUATION: Michiel, A male patient diagnosed with colon cancer was newly put in colostomy.

22. Michiel shows the BEST adaptation with the new colostomy if he shows which of the following?

A. Look at the ostomy site
B. Participate with the nurse in his daily ostomy care
C. Ask for leaflets and contact numbers of ostomy support groups
D. Talk about his ostomy openly to the nurse and friends

23. The nurse plans to teach Michiel about colostomy irrigation. As the nurse prepares the materials needed, which of the following item indicates that the nurse needs further instruction?

A. Plain NSS / Normal Saline
B. K-Y Jelly
C. Tap water
D. Irrigation sleeve

24. The nurse should insert the colostomy tube for irrigation at approximately

A. 1-2 inches
B. 3-4 inches
C. 6-8 inches
D. 12-18 inches

25. The maximum height of irrigation solution for colostomy is

A. 5 inches
B. 12 inches
C. 18 inches
D. 24 inches

26. Which of the following behavior of the client indicates the best initial step in learning to care for his colostomy?

A. Ask to defer colostomy care to another individual
B. Promises he will begin to listen the next day
C. Agrees to look at the colostomy
D. States that colostomy care is the function of the nurse while he is in the hospital

27. While irrigating the client’s colostomy, Michiel suddenly complains of severe cramping. Initially, the nurse would

A. Stop the irrigation by clamping the tube
B. Slow down the irrigation
C. Tell the client that cramping will subside and is normal
D. Notify the physician

28. The next day, the nurse will assess Michiel’s stoma. The nurse noticed that a prolapsed stoma is evident if she sees which of the following?

A. A sunken and hidden stoma
B. A dusky and bluish stoma
C. A narrow and flattened stoma
D. Protruding stoma with swollen appearance

29. Michiel asked the nurse, what foods will help lessen the odor of his colostomy. The nurse best response would be

A. Eat eggs
B. Eat cucumbers
C. Eat beet greens and parsley
D. Eat broccoli and spinach

30. The nurse will start to teach Michiel about the techniques for colostomy irrigation. Which of the following should be included in the nurse’s teaching plan?

A. Use 500 ml to 1,000 ml NSS
B. Suspend the irrigant 45 cm above the stoma
C. Insert the cone 4 cm in the stoma
D. If cramping occurs, slow the irrigation

31. The nurse knew that the normal color of Michiel’s stoma should be

A. Brick Red
B. Gray
C. Blue
D. Pale Pink

SITUATION: James, A 27 basketball player sustained inhalation burn that required him to have tracheostomy due to massive upper airway edema.

32. Wilma, His sister and a nurse is suctioning the tracheostomy tube of James. Which of the following, if made by Wilma indicates that she is committing an error?

A. Hyperventilating James with 100% oxygen before and after suctioning
B. Instilling 3 to 5 ml normal saline to loosen up secretion
C. Applying suction during catheter withdrawal
D. Suction the client every hour

33. What size of suction catheter would Wilma use for James, who is 6 feet 5 inches in height and weighing approximately 145 lbs?

A. Fr. 5
B. Fr. 10
C. Fr. 12
D. Fr. 18

34. Wilma is using a portable suction unit at home, What is the amount of suction required by James using this unit?

A. 2-5 mmHg
B. 5-10 mmHg
C. 10-15 mmHg
D. 20-25 mmHg

35. If a Wall unit is used, What should be the suctioning pressure required by James?

A. 50-95 mmHg
B. 95-110 mmHg
C. 100-120 mmHg
D. 155-175 mmHg

36. Wilma was shocked to see that the Tracheostomy was dislodged. Both the inner and outer cannulas was removed and left hanging on James’ neck. What are the 2 equipment’s at james’ bedside that could help Wilma deal with this situation?

A. New set of tracheostomy tubes and Oxygen tank
B. Theophylline and Epinephrine
C. Obturator and Kelly clamp
D. Sterile saline dressing

37. Which of the following method if used by Wilma will best assure that the tracheostomy ties are not too tightly placed?

A. Wilma places 2 fingers between the tie and neck
B. The tracheotomy can be pulled slightly away from the neck
C. James’ neck veins are not engorged
D. Wilma measures the tie from the nose to the tip of the earlobe and to the xiphoid process.

38. Wilma knew that James have an adequate respiratory condition if she notices that

A. James’ respiratory rate is 18
B. James’ Oxygen saturation is 91%
C. There are frank blood suction from the tube
D. There are moderate amount of tracheobronchial secretions

39. Wilma knew that the maximum time when suctioning James is

A. 10 seconds
B. 20 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 45 seconds

SITUATION : Juan Miguel Lopez Zobel Ayala de Batumbakal was diagnosed with Acute Close Angle Glaucoma. He is being seen by Nurse Jet.

40. What specific manifestation would nurse Jet see in Acute close angle glaucoma that she would not see in an open angle glaucoma?

A. Loss of peripheral vision
B. Irreversible vision loss
C. There is an increase in IOP
D. Pain

41. Nurse jet knew that Acute close angle glaucoma is caused by

A. Sudden blockage of the anterior angle by the base of the iris
B. Obstruction in trabecular meshwork
C. Gradual increase of IOP
D. An abrupt rise in IOP from 8 to 15 mmHg

42. Nurse jet performed a TONOMETRY test to Mr. Batumbakal. What does this test measures

A. It measures the peripheral vision remaining on the client
B. Measures the Intra Ocular Pressure
C. Measures the Client’s Visual Acuity
D. Determines the Tone of the eye in response to the sudden increase in IOP.

43. The Nurse notices that Mr. Batumbakal cannot anymore determine RED from BLUE. The nurse knew that which part of the eye is affected by this change?

A. IRIS
B. PUPIL
c. RODS [RETINA]
D. CONES [RETINA]

44. Nurse Jet knows that Aqueous Humor is produce where?

A. In the sub arachnoid space of the meninges
B. In the Lateral ventricles
C. In the Choroids
D. In the Ciliary Body

45. Nurse Jet knows that the normal IOP is

A. 8-21 mmHg
B. 2-7 mmHg
c. 31-35 mmHg
D. 15-30 mmHg

46. Nurse Jet wants to measure Mr. Batumbakal’s CN II Function. What test would Nurse Jet implement to measure CN II’s Acuity?

A. Slit lamp
B. Snellen’s Chart
C. Wood’s light
D. Gonioscopy

47. The Doctor orders pilocarpine. Nurse jet knows that the action of this drug is to

A. Contract the Ciliary muscle
B. Relax the Ciliary muscle
C. Dilate the pupils
D. Decrease production of Aqueous Humor

48. The doctor orders timolol [timoptic]. Nurse jet knows that the action of this drug is

A. Reduce production of CSF
B. Reduce production of Aquesous Humor
C. Constrict the pupil
D. Relaxes the Ciliary muscle

49. When caring for Mr. Batumbakal, Jet teaches the client to avoid

A. Watching large screen TVs
B. Bending at the waist
C. Reading books
D. Going out in the sun

50. Mr. Batumbakal has undergone eye angiography using an Intravenous dye and fluoroscopy. What activity is contraindicated immediately after procedure?

A. Reading newsprint
B. Lying down
C. Watching TV
D. Listening to the music

51. If Mr. Batumbakal is receiving pilocarpine, what drug should always be available in any case systemic toxicity occurs?

A. Atropine Sulfate
B. Pindolol [Visken]
C. Naloxone Hydrochloride [Narcan]
D. Mesoridazine Besylate [Serentil]

SITUATION : Wide knowledge about the human ear, it’s parts and it’s functions will help a nurse assess and analyze changes in the adult client’s health.

52. Nurse Anna is doing a caloric testing to his patient, Aida, a 55 year old university professor who recently went into coma after being mauled by her disgruntled 3rd year nursing students whom she gave a failing mark. After instilling a warm water in the ear, Anna noticed a rotary nystagmus towards the irrigated ear. What does this means?

A. Indicates a CN VIII Dysfunction
B. Abnormal
C. Normal
D. Inconclusive


53. Ear drops are prescribed to an infant, The most appropriate method to administer the ear drops is

A. Pull the pinna up and back and direct the solution towards the eardrum
B. Pull the pinna down and back and direct the solution onto the wall of the canal
C. Pull the pinna down and back and direct the solution towards the eardrum
D. Pull the pinna up and back and direct the solution onto the wall of the canal

54. Nurse Jenny is developing a plan of care for a patient with Menieres disease. What is the priority nursing intervention in the plan of care for this particular patient?

A. Air, Breathing, Circulation
B. Love and Belongingness
C. Food, Diet and Nutrition
D. Safety

55. After mastoidectomy, Nurse John should be aware that the cranial nerve that is usually damage after this procedure is

A. CN I
B. CN II
C. CN VII
D. CN VI

56. The physician orders the following for the client with Menieres disease. Which of the following should the nurse question?

A. Dipenhydramine [Benadryl]
B. Atropine sulfate
C. Out of bed activities and ambulation
D. Diazepam [Valium]

57. Nurse Anna is giving dietary instruction to a client with Menieres disease. Which statement if made by the client indicates that the teaching has been successful?

A. I will try to eat foods that are low in sodium and limit my fluid intake
B. I must drink atleast 3,000 ml of fluids per day
C. I will try to follow a 50% carbohydrate, 30% fat and 20% protein diet
D. I will not eat turnips, red meat and raddish

58. Peachy was rushed by his father, Steven into the hospital admission. Peachy is complaining of something buzzing into her ears. Nurse Joemar assessed peachy and found out It was an insect. What should be the first thing that Nurse Joemar should try to remove the insect out from peachy’s ear?

A. Use a flashlight to coax the insect out of peachy’s ear
B. Instill an antibiotic ear drops
C. Irrigate the ear
D. Pick out the insect using a sterile clean forceps

59. Following an ear surgery, which statement if heard by Nurse Oca from the patient indicates a correct understanding of the post operative instructions?

A. Activities are resumed within 5 days
B. I will make sure that I will clean my hair and face to prevent infection
C. I will use straw for drinking
D. I should avoid air travel for a while

60. Nurse Oca will do a caloric testing to a client who sustained a blunt injury in the head. He instilled a cold water in the client’s right ear and he noticed that nystagmus occurred towards the left ear. What does this finding indicates?

A. Indicating a Cranial Nerve VIII Dysfunction
B. The test should be repeated again because the result is vague
C. This is Grossly abnormal and should be reported to the neurosurgeon
D. This indicates an intact and working vestibular branch of CN VIII

61. A client with Cataract is about to undergo surgery. Nurse Oca is preparing plan of care. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is most appropriate to address the long term need of this type of patient?

A. Anxiety R/T to the operation and its outcome
B. Sensory perceptual alteration R/T Lens extraction and replacement
C. Knowledge deficit R/T the pre operative and post operative self care
D. Body Image disturbance R/T the eye packing after surgery


62. Nurse Joseph is performing a WEBERS TEST. He placed the tuning fork in the patients forehead after tapping it onto his knee. The client states that the fork is louder in the LEFT EAR. Which of the following is a correct conclusion for nurse Josph to make?

A. He might have a sensory hearing loss in the left ear
B. Conductive hearing loss is possible in the right ear
C. He might have a sensory hearing loss in the right hear, and/or a conductive hearing loss in the left ear.
D. He might have a conductive hearing loss in the right ear, and/or a sensory hearing loss in the left ear.

63. Aling myrna has Menieres disease. What typical dietary prescription would nurse Oca expect the doctor to prescribe?

A. A low sodium , high fluid intake
B. A high calorie, high protein dietary intake
C. low fat, low sodium and high calorie intake
D. low sodium and restricted fluid intake

SITUATION : [ From DEC 1991 NLE ] A 45 year old male construction worker was admitted to a tertiary hospital for incessant vomiting. Assessment disclosed: weak rapid pulse, acute weight loss of .5kg, furrows in his tongue, slow flattening of the skin was noted when the nurse released her pinch.

Temperature: 35.8 C , BUN Creatinine ratio : 10 : 1, He also complains for postural hypotension. There was no infection.

64. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing diagnosis?

A. Fluid volume deficit R/T furrow tongue
B. Fluid volume deficit R/T uncontrolled vomiting
C. Dehydration R/T subnormal body temperature
D. Dehydration R/T incessant vomiting

65. Approximately how much fluid is lost in acute weight loss of .5kg?

A. 50 ml
B. 750 ml
C. 500 ml
D. 75 ml

66. Postural Hypotension is

A. A drop in systolic pressure less than 10 mmHg when patient changes position from lying to sitting.
B. A drop in systolic pressure greater than 10 mmHg when patient changes position from lying to sitting
C. A drop in diastolic pressure less than 10 mmHg when patient changes position from lying to sitting
D. A drop in diastolic pressure greater than 10 mmHg when patient changes position from lying to sitting

67. Which of the following measures will not help correct the patient’s condition

A. Offer large amount of oral fluid intake to replace fluid lost
B. Give enteral or parenteral fluid
C. Frequent oral care
D. Give small volumes of fluid at frequent interval

68. After nursing intervention, you will expect the patient to have

1. Maintain body temperature at 36.5 C
2. Exhibit return of BP and Pulse to normal
3. Manifest normal skin turgor of skin and tongue
4. Drinks fluids as prescribed

A. 1,3
B. 2,4
C. 1,3,4
D. 2,3,4

SITUATION: A 65 year old woman was admitted for Parkinson’s Disease. The charge nurse is going to make an initial assessment.

69. Which of the following is a characteristic of a patient with advanced Parkinson’s disease?

A. Disturbed vision
B. Forgetfulness
C. Mask like facial expression
D. Muscle atrophy

70. The onset of Parkinson’s disease is between 50-60 years old. This disorder is caused by

A. Injurious chemical substances
B. Hereditary factors
C. Death of brain cells due to old age
D. Impairment of dopamine producing cells in the brain

71. The patient was prescribed with levodopa. What is the action of this drug?

A. Increase dopamine availability
B. Activates dopaminergic receptors in the basal ganglia
C. Decrease acetylcholine availability
D. Release dopamine and other catecholamine from neurological storage sites

72. You are discussing with the dietician what food to avoid with patients taking levodopa?

A. Vitamin C rich food
B. Vitamin E rich food
C. Thiamine rich food
D. Vitamin B6 rich food

73. One day, the patient complained of difficulty in walking. Your response would be

A. You will need a cane for support
B. Walk erect with eyes on horizon
C. I’ll get you a wheelchair
D. Don’t force yourself to walk

SITUATION: Mr. Dela Isla, a client with early Dementia exhibits thought process disturbances.

74. The nurse will assess a loss of ability in which of the following areas?

A. Balance
B. Judgment
C. Speech
D. Endurance

75. Mr. Dela Isla said he cannot comprehend what the nurse was saying. He suffers from:

A. Insomnia
B. Aphraxia
C. Agnosia
D. Aphasia

76. The nurse is aware that in communicating with an elderly client, the nurse will

A. Lean and shout at the ear of the client
B. Open mouth wide while talking to the client
C. Use a low-pitched voice
D. Use a medium-pitched voice

77. As the nurse talks to the daughter of Mr. Dela Isla, which of the following statement of the daughter will require the nurse to give further teaching?

A. I know the hallucinations are parts of the disease
B. I told her she is wrong and I explained to her what is right
C. I help her do some tasks he cannot do for himself
D. Ill turn off the TV when we go to another room

78. Which of the following is most important discharge teaching for Mr. Dela Isla

A. Emergency Numbers
B. Drug Compliance
C. Relaxation technique
D. Dietary prescription

SITUATION : Knowledge of the drug PROPANTHELINE BROMIDE [Probanthine] Is necessary in treatment of various disorders.

79. What is the action of this drug?

A. Increases glandular secretion for clients affected with cystic fibrosis
B. Dissolve blockage of the urinary tract due to obstruction of cystine stones
C. Reduces secretion of the glandular organ of the body
D. Stimulate peristalsis for treatment of constipation and obstruction

80. What should the nurse caution the client when using this medication

A. Avoid hazardous activities like driving, operating machineries etc.
B. Take the drug on empty stomach
C. Take with a full glass of water in treatment of Ulcerative colitis
D. I must take double dose if I missed the previous dose

81. Which of the following drugs are not compatible when taking Probanthine?

A. Caffeine
B. NSAID
C. Acetaminophen
D. Alcohol

82. What should the nurse tell clients when taking Probanthine?

A. Avoid hot weathers to prevent heat strokes
B. Never swim on a chlorinated pool
C. Make sure you limit your fluid intake to 1L a day
D. Avoid cold weathers to prevent hypothermia

83. Which of the following disease would Probanthine exert the much needed action for control or treatment of the disorder?

A. Urinary retention
B. Peptic Ulcer Disease
C. Ulcerative Colitis
D. Glaucoma

SITUATION : Mr. Franco, 70 years old, suddenly could not lift his spoons nor speak at breakfast. He was rushed to the hospital unconscious. His diagnosis was CVA.

84. Which of the following is the most important assessment during the acute stage of an unconscious patient like Mr. Franco?

A. Level of awareness and response to pain
B. Papillary reflexes and response to sensory stimuli
C. Coherence and sense of hearing
D. Patency of airway and adequacy of respiration

85. Considering Mr. Franco’s conditions, which of the following is most important to include in preparing Franco’s bedside equipment?

A. Hand bell and extra bed linen
B. Sandbag and trochanter rolls
C. Footboard and splint
D. Suction machine and gloves

86. What is the rationale for giving Mr. Franco frequent mouth care?

A. He will be thirsty considering that he is doesn’t drink enough fluids
B. To remove dried blood when tongue is bitten during a seizure
C. The tactile stimulation during mouth care will hasten return to consciousness
D. Mouth breathing is used by comatose patient and it’ll cause oral mucosa dying and cracking.

87. One of the complications of prolonged bed rest is decubitus ulcer. Which of the following can best prevent its occurrence?

A. Massage reddened areas with lotion or oils
B. Turn frequently every 2 hours
C. Use special water mattress
D. Keep skin clean and dry

88. If Mr. Franco’s Right side is weak, What should be the most accurate analysis by the nurse?

A. Expressive aphasia is prominent on clients with right sided weakness
B. The affected lobe in the patient is the Right lobe
C. The client will have problems in judging distance and proprioception
D. Clients orientation to time and space will be much affected

SITUATION : a 20 year old college student was rushed to the ER of PGH after he fainted during their ROTC drill. Complained of severe right iliac pain. Upon palpation of his abdomen, Ernie jerks even on slight pressure. Blood test was ordered. Diagnosis is acute appendicitis.

89. Which result of the lab test will be significant to the diagnosis?

A. RBC : 4.5 TO 5 Million / cu. mm.
B. Hgb : 13 to 14 gm/dl.
C. Platelets : 250,000 to 500,000 cu.mm.
D. WBC : 12,000 to 13,000/cu.mm

90. Stat appendectomy was indicated. Pre op care would include all of the following except?

A. Consent signed by the father
B. Enema STAT
C. Skin prep of the area including the pubis
D. Remove the jewelries

91. Pre-anesthetic med of Demerol and atrophine sulfate were ordered to :

A. Allay anxiety and apprehension
B. Reduce pain
C. Prevent vomiting
D. Relax abdominal muscle

92. Common anesthesia for appendectomy is

A. Spinal
B. General
C. Caudal
D. Hypnosis

93. Post op care for appendectomy include the following except

A. Early ambulation
B. Diet as tolerated after fully conscious
C. Nasogastric tube connect to suction
D. Deep breathing and leg exercise

94. Peritonitis may occur in ruptured appendix and may cause serious problems which are

1. Hypovolemia, electrolyte imbalance
2. Elevated temperature, weakness and diaphoresis
3. Nausea and vomiting, rigidity of the abdominal wall
4. Pallor and eventually shock

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1,2,3
D. All of the above

95. If after surgery the patient’s abdomen becomes distended and no bowel sounds appreciated, what would be the most suspected complication?

A. Intussusception
B. Paralytic Ileus
C. Hemorrhage
D. Ruptured colon

96. NGT was connected to suction. In caring for the patient with NGT, the nurse must

A. Irrigate the tube with saline as ordered
B. Use sterile technique in irrigating the tube
C. advance the tube every hour to avoid kinks
D. Offer some ice chips to wet lips

97. When do you think the NGT tube be removed?

A. When patient requests for it
B. Abdomen is soft and patient asks for water
C. Abdomen is soft and flatus has been expelled
D. B and C only

Situation: Amanda is suffering from chronic arteriosclerosis Brain syndrome she fell while getting out of the bed one morning and was brought to the hospital, and she was diagnosed to have cerebrovascular thrombosis thus transferred to a nursing home.

98. What do you call a STROKE that manifests a bizarre behavior?

A. Inorganic Stroke
B. Inorganic Psychoses
C. Organic Stroke
D. Organic Psychoses

99. The main difference between chronic and organic brain syndrome is that the former

A. Occurs suddenly and reversible
B. Is progressive and reversible
C. tends to be progressive and irreversible
D. Occurs suddenly and irreversible

100. Which behavior results from organic psychoses?

A. Memory deficit
B. Disorientation
C. Impaired Judgement
D. Inappropriate affect





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Psychiatric Nursing Q&A

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1. 60 years old post CVA (cardio vascular accident) patient is taking TPA for his disease, the nurse understands that this is an example of what level of prevention?

a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. nota

2. A female client undergoes yearly mammography. This is a type of what level of prevention?

a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. nota

3. A Diabetic patient was amputated following an unexpected necrosis on the right leg, he sustained and undergone BKA. He then underwent therapy on how to use his new prosthetic leg. this is a type of what level of prevention?

a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. nota

4. As a care provider, The nurse should do first:

a. Provide direct nursing care.
b. Participate with the team in performing nursing intervention.
c. Therapeutic use of self.
d. Early recognition of the client’s needs.

5. As a manager, the nurse should:

a. Initiates nursing action with co workers.
b. Plans nursing care with the patient.
c. Speaks in behalf of the patient.
d. Works together with the team.

6. The nurse shows a patient advocate role when

a. defend the patients right
b. refer patient for other services she needs
c. work with significant others
d. intercedes in behalf of the patient.

7. Which is the following is the most appropriate during the orientation phase ?

a. patients perception on the reason of her hospitalization
b. identification of more effective ways of coping
c. exploration of inadequate coping skills
d. establishment of regular meeting of schedules

8. Preparing the client for the termination phase begins

a. pre orientation
b. orientation
c. working
d. termination

9. A helping relationship is a process characterized by :

a. recovery promoting
b. mutual interaction
c. growth facilitating
d. health enhancing

10. During the nurse patient interaction, the nurse assess the ff: to determine the patients coping strategy :

a. How are you feeling right now?
b. Do you have anyone to take you home?
c. What do you think will help you right now?
d. How does your problem affect your life?

11. As a counsellor, the nurse performs which of the ff: task?

a. Encourage client to express feelings and concerns
b. Helps client to learn a dance or song to enable her to participate in activities
c. Help the client prepare in group activities
d. Assist the client in setting limits on her behaviour

12. Freud stresses out that the EGO

a. Distinguishes between things in the mind and things in the reality.
b. Moral arm of the personality that strives for perfection than pleasure.
c. Reservoir of instincts and drives
d. Control the physical needs instincts.

13. A 16 year old child is hospitalized, according to Erik Erikson, what is an appropriate intervention?

a. tell the friends to visit the child
b. encourage patient to help child learn lessons missed
c. call the priest to intervene
d. tell the child’s girlfriend to visit the child.

14. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is characterized by :

a. hypertension, hyperthermia, flushed and dry skin.
b. Hypotension, hypothermia, flushed and dry skin.
c. Hypertension, hyperthermia, diaphoresis
d. Hypertension, hypothermia, diaphoresis

15. Which of the following drugs needs a WBC level checked regularly?

a. Lithane
b. Clozaril
c. Tofranil
d. Diazepam

Angelo, an 18 year old out of school youth was caught shoplifting in a department store. He has history of being quarrelsome and involving physical fight with his friends. He has been out of jail for the past two years

16. Initially, The nurse identifies which of the ff: Nursing diagnosis:

a. self centred disturbance
b. impaired social interaction
c. sensory perceptual alteration
d. altered thought process

17. Which of the ff: is not a characteristic of PD?

a. disregard rights of others
b. loss of cognitive functioning
c. fails to conform to social norms
d. not capable of experiencing guild or remorse for their behaviour

18. The most effective treatment modality for persons if anti social PD is

a. hypnotherapy
b. gestalt therapy
c. behaviour therapy
d. crisis intervention

19. Which of the following is not an example of alteration of perception?

a. ideas of reference
b. flight of ideas
c. illusion
d. hallucination

20. The type of anxiety that leads to personality disorganization is :

a. Mild
b. Moderate
c. Severe
d. Panic

21. A client is admitted to the hospital. Twelve hours later the nurse observes hand tremors, hyperexicitability, tachycardia, diaphoresis and hypertension. The nurse suspects alcohol withdrawal. The nurse should ask the client:

a. At what time was your last drink taken?
b. Why didn’t you tell us you’re a drinker?
c. Do you drink beer or hard liquor?
d. How long have you been drinking?

22. Client with a history of schizophrenia has been admitted for suicidal ideation. The client states "God is telling me to kill myself right now." The nurse's best response is:

a. I understand that god’s voice are real to you, But I don’t hear anything. I will stay with you.
b. The voices are part of your illness, it will stop if you take medication
c. The voices are all in your imagination, think of something else and itll go away
d. Don’t think of anything right now, just go and relax.

23. In assessing a client's suicide potential, which statement by the client would give the nurse the HIGHEST cause for concern?

a. My thoughts of hurting my self are scary to me
b. I’d like to go to sleep and not wake up
c. I’ve thought about taking pills and alcohol till I pass out
d. Id like to be free from all these worries

24. A client with paranoid schizophrenia has persecutory delusions and auditory hallucinations and is extremely agitated. He has been given a PRN dose of Thorazine IM. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the medication is having the desired effect?

a. Complains of dry mouth
b. State he feels restless in his body
c. Stops pacing and sits with the nurse
d. Exhibits increase activity and speech

25. A client who was wandering aimlessly around the streets acting inappropriately and appeared disheveled and unkept was admitted to a psychiatric unit and is experiencing auditory and visual hallucinations. The nurse would develop a plan of care based on:

a. borderline personality disorder
b. anxiety disorder
c. schizophrenia
d. depression

26. A decision is made to not hospitalize a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder. Of the following abilities the client has demonstrated, the one that probably most influenced the decision not to hospitalize him is his ability to:

a. Hold a job.
b. Relate to his peers.
c. Perform activities of daily living.
d. Behave in an outwardly normal

27. A client is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric unit. He is unshaven, has body odor, and has spots on his shirt and pants. He moves slowly, gazes at the floor, and has a flat affect. The nurse's highest priority in assessing the client on admission would be to ask him:

a. How he sleeps at night.
b. If he is thinking about hurting himself.
c. About recent stresses.
d. How he feels about himself.

28. The nurse should know that the normal therapeutic level of lithium is :

a. .6 to 1.2 meq/L
b. 6 to 12 meq/L
c. .6 to .12 cc/ml
d. .6 to .12 cc3/L

29. The patient complaint of vomiting, diarrhea and restlessness after taking lithane. The nurse’s initial intervention is :

a. Recognize that this is a sign of toxicity and withhold the next medication.
b. Notify the physician.
c. Check V/S to validate patient’s concerns.
d. Recognize that this is a normal side effects of lithium and still continue the drug.

30. The client is taking TOFRANIL. The nurse should closely monitor the patient for :

a. Hypertension
b. Hypothermia
c. Increase Intra Ocular Pressure
d. Increase Intra Cranial Pressure

31. A client was hospitalized with major depression with suicidal ideation for 1 week. He is taking venlafaxine (Effexor), 75 mg three times a day, and is planning to return to work. The nurse asks the client if he is experiencing thoughts of self-harm. The client responds, "I hardly think about it anymore and wouldn't do anything to hurt myself." The nurse judges:

a. The client to be decompensating and in need of being readmitted to the hospital.
b. The client to need an adjustment or increase in his dose of antidepressant.
c. The depression to be improving and the suicidal ideation to be lessening.
d. The presence of suicidal ideation to warrant a telephone call to the client's physician

32. The client is taking sertraline (Zoloft), 50 mg q AM. The nurse includes which of the following in the teaching plan about Zoloft?

a. Zoloft causes erectile dysfunction in men.
b. Zoloft causes postural hypotension
c. Zoloft increases appetite and weight gain
d. It may take 3-4 weeks before client will start feeling better.

33. After 3 days of taking haloperidol, the client shows an inability to sit still, is restless and fidgety, and paces around the unit. Of the following extrapyramidal adverse reactions, the client is showing signs of:

a. Dystonia
b. Akathisia
c. Parkinsonism
d. Tardive dyskinesia

34. After 10 days of lithium therapy, the client's lithium level is 1.0 mEq/L. The nurse knows that this value indicates which of the following?

a. A laboratory error.
b. An anticipated therapeutic blood level of the drug.
c. An atypical client response to the drug.
d. A toxic level.

35. When caring for a client receiving haloperidol (Haldol), the nurse would assess for which of the following?

a. Hypertensive episodes
b. Extrapyramidal symptoms
c. Hypersalivation
d. Oversedation

36. A client is brought to the hospital’s emergency room by a friend, who states, "I guess he had some bad junk (heroin) today." In assessing the client, the nurse would likely find which of the following symptoms?

a. Increased heart rate, dilated pupils, and fever.
b. Tremulousness, impaired coordination, increased blood pressure, and ruddy complexion.
c. Decreased respirations, constricted pupils, and pallor.
d. Eye irritation, tinnitus, and irritation of nasal and oral mucosa.

37. The client has been taking the monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) phenelzine (Nardil), 10 mg bid. The physician orders a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), paroxetine (Paxil), 20 mg given every morning. The nurse:

a. Gives the medication as ordered.
b. Questions the physician about the order.
c. Questions the dosage ordered.
d. Asks the physician to order benztropine (Cogentin) for the side effects.

38. Which of the following client statements about clozapine (Clozaril) indicates that the client needs additional teaching?

a. "I need to have my blood checked once every several months while I’m taking this drug."
b. "I need to sit on the side of the bed for a while when I wake up in the morning."
c. "The sleepiness I feel will decrease as my body adjusts to clozapine."
d. "I need to call my doctor whenever I notice that I have a fever or sore throat."

39. A client has been taking lithium carbonate (Lithane) for hyperactivity, as prescribed by his physician. While the client is taking this drug, the nurse should ensure that he has an adequate intake of:

a. Sodium
b. Iron
c. Iodine
d. Calcium

40. The client has been taking clomipramine (Anafranil) for his obsessive-compulsive disorder. He tells the nurse, "I'm not really better, and I've been taking the medication faithfully for the past 3 days just like it says on this prescription bottle." Which of the following actions would the nurse do first?

a. Tell the client to continue taking the medication as prescribed because it takes 5 to 10 weeks for a full therapeutic effect.
b. Tell the client to stop taking the medication and to call the physician.
c. Encourage the client to double the dose of his medication.
d. Ask the client if he has resumed smoking cigarettes.

41. The nurse judges correctly that a client is experiencing an adverse effect from amitriptyline hydrochloride (Elavil) when the client demonstrates:

a. An elevated blood glucose level.
b. Insomnia
c. Hypertension
d. Urinary retention

42. Which of the following health status assessments must be completed before the client starts taking imipramine (Tofranil)?

a. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
b. Urine sample for protein
c. Thyroid scan
d. Creatinine clearance test

43. A client comes to the outpatient mental health clinic 2 days after being discharged from the hospital. The client was given a 1-week supply of clozapine (Clozaril). The nurse reviews information about clozapine with the client. Which client statement indicates an accurate understanding of the nurse's teaching about this medication?

a."I need to call my doctor in 2 weeks for a checkup."
b."I need to keep my appointment here at the hospital this week for a blood test."
c. "I can drink alcohol with this medication."
d. "I can take over-the-counter sleeping medication if I have trouble sleeping."

44. The client is taking risperidone (Risperdal) to treat the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Which of the following negative symptoms will improve?.

a. Abnormal thought form
b. Hallucinations and delusions
c. Bizarre behaviour
d. Asocial behaviour and anergia

45. The nurse would teach the client taking tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) to avoid which food because of its high tyramine content?

a. Nuts
b. Aged cheeses
c. Grain cereals
d. Reconstituted milk

46. Which of the following clinical manifestations would alert the nurse to lithium toxicity?

a. Increasingly agitated behaviour
b. Markedly increased food intake
c. Sudden increase in blood pressure
d. Anorexia with nausea and vomiting

47. The client with depression has been hospitalized for 3 days on the psychiatric unit. This is the second hospitalization during the past year. The physician orders a different drug, tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate), when the client does not respond positively to a tricyclic antidepressant. Which of the following reactions should the client be cautioned about if her diet includes foods containing tryaminetyramine?

a. Heart block
b. Grand mal seizure
c. Respiratory arrest
d. Hypertensive crisis

48. After the nurse has taught the client who is being discharged on lithium (Eskalith) about the drug, which of the following client statements would indicate that the teaching has been successful?

a. "I need to restrict eating any foods that contain salt."
b. "If I forget a dose, I can double the dose the next time I take it."
c. "I'll call my doctor right away for any vomiting, severe hand tremors, or muscle weakness."
d. "I should increase my fluid”


49. A nurse is caring for a client with Parkinson's disease who has been taking carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet) for a year. Which of the following adverse reactions will the nurse monitor the client for?

a. dykinesia
b. glaucoma
c. hypotension
d. respiratory depression

50. A client is taking fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) for treatment of depression. The client asks the nurse when the maximum therapeutic response occurs. The nurse's best response is that the maximum therapeutic response for fluoxetine hydrochloride may occur in the:

a. 10-14 days
b. First week
c. Third week
d. Fourth week





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Friday, July 27, 2007

Nursing exam flunkers may be credited as ‘practical nurses’

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Out of the 78,000 nursing examinees who took the Nursing Board Exam June 2007, only around half will pass the NLE. The Department of Labor and Employment is formulating a new policy to allow the "flunkers" in the state-administered nursing licensure examinees last June to continue practicing their profession as "practical nurses."

Labor Secretary Arturo Brion said that only about only about 40,000 of the 78,000 examinees -- including the re-takers of the leakage-marred 2006 exam -- to pass the test.

"We're anticipating that many of them (flunkers) will do re-take so we think that one fall-back position is to have them licensed as practical nurses. This is assuming that there are some who would not do the re-take," Brion explained to reporters.

Brion also mentioned that the results of the June nursing board licensure exam would be released by middle of August.

Practical nurse in the Philippines are High School graduate who undergo a 2-year vocational nursing courses so that they can work in medical facilities. They perform simple medical tasks, mostly dealing with patient's medication and care, they should be under the supervision of a nurse or a physician.

Out of the 42,000 who took the June 2006 licensure examination, only 17,000 passed the test.
The government, however, was forced to administer a retake of two parts of the exam after the United States' Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools said it would not admit passers of the leakage-tainted June 2006 test.

Recently read an article in the Inquirer.net that nurses who does nto pass the exam will be credited


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Article copyright philippinenurses.blogspot.com - #1 source of information to update filipino nurses. All rights reserved. No part of an article may be reproduced without the prior permission.

Wednesday, July 25, 2007

Nurse Jobs

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by: Marcus Peterson

By all available indications, job opportunities for registered nurses are expected to rise during the next few years. Although most still work in hospitals (inpatient and outpatient departments), others are engaged in the offices of physicians, nursing care facilities, home health care services, employment services, government agencies and outpatient care centers. The rest mostly join social assistance agencies and educational services, both in public and private sectors.

Job opportunities in hospitals are expected to grow at a comparatively slower rate than in most other sectors, as the number of inpatients is not likely to go up in a big way. However, rapid growth is likely in outpatient facilities. As more state-of-the-art procedures are now being performed in physicians' offices and outpatient care centers, employment is likely to grow faster in these places. In the nursing care facilities sector, the number of jobs is set to grow faster because of the rise in the number of elderly, many of whom need long-term care.

A rise in employment is also expected in specialized long-term rehabilitation units for stroke and head-injury patients, and Alzheimer's victims. More jobs are likely to be available in home health care also, because of the increase in the number of older persons with functional disabilities and consumers preference for treatment at home.

As more and more vistas open up for nurses, they need to be flexible. For those who have advanced education and training, opportunities are great.

Compensation packages for nurses depend on various factors like location, type of nursing, training and education. Annual starting salaries for entry-level staff nurses are usually between $30,000 and $45,000. Apart from that, they receive additional pay for evening, night and weekend shifts. Nurses also often receive benefits like health insurance, pension plans, vacation, holiday pay, college tuition reimbursement, child care and flexible scheduling.

Checkout  Nursing Jobs Abroad

Tuesday, July 24, 2007

Filipino nurses warned against ‘leaking’ US board exam questions to other examinees

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By MAYEN JAYMALIN
The Philippine Star

Filipino nurses, beware.
Dante Ang, presidential task force on national council licensure examination (NCLEX) chief, on Friday warned Filipino nurses against “leaking” the questionnaires in the US board examination to other examinees.

“I am appealing to them to consider the honor of the country and not sell the questions to other examinees because we will run after them,” Ang said.
He cited instances in South Korea where examinees memorized the questionnaires and sold them to other applicants. Upon discovery of the irregularity, the US stopped the conduct of examination in Korea.

According to Ang, Filipino nurses should refrain from taking any action that may compromise the holding of US board examination here.

Ang issued the warning as he advised nurses hoping to work in the United States that they may start registering Saturday for the NCLEX examination to be held in the Philippines starting August 23.

Marco Sto. Tomas of the Board of Nursing (BON) said applicants may register and check out information concerning the examination at www.pearsonvue.com. Other information is also available at www.ncsbn.org.

To register, applicants should download registration information from the pearsonvue Web site. All the requirements and fees to be paid are listed online.

Ang said applicants need not visit the office and testing center in Makati because only online registration will be entertained.

“Applicants will register, submit the requirements and get the schedule of the examination online,” Ang added.

The US National Council of State Boards of Nursing Inc. (NCSBN) earlier announced that NCLEX testing will be conducted in Manila to allow “greater customer service” to nurses who are applying to work in the US.

All security policies and procedures currently used to administer the NCLEX examination domestically will be fully implemented in the Philippines, NCSBN noted.

Foreign nurses aspiring to work in the United States are required to apply to the board of nursing in the state or territory where they wish to be licensed before registering for the NCLEX examination.

Sen. Pia Cayetano, meanwhile, welcomed the approval by the NCSBN of the request of the Philippine government for the establishment of a testing center in the country for the NCLEX.

“Bringing the US nursing licensure exams to the country represents a major breakthrough that would benefit thousands of Filipino nurses and their families,” said Cayetano, who chaired the Senate Committee on Health and Demography in the 13th Congress.

Cayetano noted though that the breakthrough also has its downside, since this would also mean more nurses lining up for work in the US, including Filipino doctors who will be enticed to retrain as nurses.

Hilary Clinton draws attention to shortage of Nurses

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According to Transworldnews posted last July 19, 2007, former first lady Hilary Clinton draws attention to the shortage of Nurses in the United States on her recent visit to Upstate new york that people are not aware of. She Said that it is hurting New York the most that in the next 10 years, they will need at most 80,000 nurses however, it's just ironic because there are no shortage of people taking up the profession, furthermore Clinton said that in 7 years there would be about 1.2million openings in the country for regular nurses.

She believes that addressing the shortage of nurses in the United States the ripple effect would filter down to the healthcare system which many believes that it is in dire states and would need to be changed.



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Saudi Arabia urgently needs more nurses, other health workers

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Davao City (24 August) -- The Kingdom of Saudi Arabia (KSA) is in urgent need of additional nurses and health-related workers.

Francis B. Domingo, chief of the Philippine Overseas Employment Administration (POEA) Mindanao area yesterday (August 22) said the Ministry of Health (MoH) through the Royal Embassy of Saudi Arabia, Saudi Recruitment Office (SRO) has requested their assistance regarding the immediate deployment of health workers particularly nurses.

While the KSA has requested earlier the screening of at least 2,000 nurses, Domingo said the additional number is on top of their original request. The SRO has requested at least 5,100 licensed nurses, 100 of which must have had at least 2 years experience in the ICU, MICU, CCU, CHU and CSICU, he said.

Minimum monthly rate for nurses is between US$ 600.00 - 2,133.00 with 45 days annual paid vacation with free round trip ticket, free housing and transportation. Work contract is renewable every year, Domingo said.

Domingo stressed that no placement fees will be collected since this is a government to government hiring program.

He likewise said, this could be the start of a lucrative nursing career as the benefits/incentives are being offered liberally to the employees.

Interested applicants must submit immediately to the POEA Regional Center office at the 2F AMYA II Bldg., Quimpo Blvd-Tulip Drive, Ecoland, Davao City, the following requirements: (1) typewritten bio-data with detailed job description, (2) photocopy of school records-diploma and transcript of records, (3) photocopy of employment certificate, (4) photocopy of marriage contract, if married; 5) photocopy of board certificate rating-for nurse & x-ray technician 6) photocopy of letter of no objection 7) photocopy of passport or birth certificate 8) 6 copies 2 x 2 ID photo 9) training certificate, if applicable 10) OMA certificate for Muslim applicants.

Others vacancies include: Female x-ray technicians- 200; Female ECG technicians - 25; Female electrocardiogram technicians - 25 ; medical secretarial instructors - 20; medical records instructors - 20; English instructors - 20; printing press maintenance staff - 1.

For further inquiries, those interested may call POEA-Mindanao : 297-7640; 297-7428; 297-7650 or the POEA Government Placement Branch in Manila, (02)722-1174; (02)722-1175 or thru email address at gpb@poea.gov.ph.

Domingo also announced the holding of POEA Jobs Fair on August 25 at the POEA-Mindanao and August 26 in Tagum City. On August 29-30, a 2-day Jobs Fair will also be held in Zamboanga City, he stressed. (PIA/bcgomez)

Source: http://www.gov.ph/news/default.asp?i=12547


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